Proving Equivalence of Metrics Using Concavity

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around proving that a function \( f \) defined on non-negative reals, which is monotonically increasing and satisfies a concavity condition, can be used to derive a new metric from an existing metric \( p \) on a set \( X \). Participants explore the implications of these properties for the triangle inequality and the equivalence of metrics.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • Post 1 presents the main problem of proving that \( f(p(x,y)) \) is a metric and that it is equivalent to \( p(x,y) \), questioning the validity of the concavity condition as stated.
  • Post 3 clarifies that the concavity condition is indeed valid and provides a method to derive the triangle inequality from it, suggesting that a graphical interpretation of concave functions could aid understanding.
  • Post 3 also challenges the equivalence of the metrics, stating that it only holds under certain conditions, specifically mentioning that \( f \) must have a bounded derivative, using \( f(x) = \sqrt{x} \) as a counterexample.
  • Post 5 requests a proof using the first definition of concavity, indicating interest in exploring different approaches to the problem.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the implications of the concavity condition for the triangle inequality and the equivalence of metrics. There is no consensus on whether the metrics are equivalent without additional conditions on \( f \).

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the triangle inequality may not hold under the current assumptions without further clarification or conditions on \( f \). The discussion also highlights the dependence on the definitions of concavity and the properties of the function \( f \).

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I need to prove the following:
let p be a metric on X, and f:[0,infinity)->[0,infinity) s.t:
1.f(0)=0.
2.f is monotonically increasing.
3. f satisfy: f((a+b)/2)>=(f(a)+f(b))/2
prove that: f(p(x,y)) is a metric on X, and that that f(p(x,y)) and p(x,y) are equivalent, i.e that there exists reals: b>a>0 s.t a<=f(p(x,y))/p(x,y)<=b.

now to prove the first two consitions for metric is quite easy and i did it, but i find it a bit difficult to prove the triangle inequality, i have a feeling that 3's sign should <=, this way we do get the triangle inequality, am i right?
and concerning equivalence of metrics, basically if it's f((a+b)/2)<=(f(a)+f(b))/2, then
f(p(x,y))/p(x,y)<=2f(p(x,y)/2)/p(x,y)<=...<=2^nf(p(x,y)/2^n)/p(x,y), so for p(x,y) we get the maximum of the ratios, so i think that basically f(p(x,y))/p(x,y)<=f(1), don't know about the left inequality.

any hints?

as always your help is appreciated.
 
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anyone?
 
3 seems fine as it is. It is just saying that f is concave. That is

<br /> f(pa+(1-p)b)\ge pf(a)+(1-p)f(b)<br />

for any a,b and 0 < p < 1.
Then, if x,y > 0 you can set a = 0, b = x+y and p = x/(x+y)

<br /> f(y)\ge \frac{y}{x+y} f(x+y)<br />

similarly, exchange the roles of x and y to get f(x) >= (x/(x+y))f(x+y) and add these inequalities to get f(x)+f(y)>=f(x+y). Then you can apply this to the triangle inequality.

btw, as you needed to prove f(x+y)<=f(x) + f(y) the easiest approach is probably to draw or imagine a graph of a concave function to see what this means, then formulate a rigorous argument based on the intuition gained (which is what I did).

For the second bit, its not true. The metrics won't be equivalent in the sense you state unless f has bounded derivative, which is false for f(x)=\sqrt{x}.
 
thanks gel.
 
btw, can you prove this by using the first definition of concavity that iv'e given (i know that they are equivalent but still I would like to see also a proof with the first definition).

thanks in advance.
 

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