Proving m(X)=0: Sequence of Measurable Sets

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Homework Statement


Let [itex](X_n)[/itex] be a sequence of measurable subsets of [itex]\mathbb R[/itex] such that

[tex]\sum_{i=1}^\infty m(X_i) < \infty[/tex]

Define

[tex]X = \bigcap_{i=1}^\infty \left( \bigcup_{j=i}^\infty X_j \right)[/tex]

Prove that m(X) = 0.

Homework Equations


Theorem. Let [itex](E_n)[/itex] be a sequence of measurable sets such that [itex]E_{n+1} \subseteq E_n[/itex] and [itex]m(E_1) < \infty[/itex]. Then

[tex]m\left(\bigcap_{i=1}^\infty E_i \right) = \lim_{i \to \infty} m(E_i)[/tex]


The Attempt at a Solution


Define [itex]E_i = \bigcup\limits_{j=i}^\infty X_j[/itex]. Then by the aforementioned theorem,

[tex]m(X) = \lim_{i \to \infty} m(E_i)[/tex]

My only problem is showing that the limit is in fact 0. I haven't used that [itex]\sum m(X_i) < \infty[/itex]. Any tips?
 
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you can say that m(X) <= m(E_{i}) for each i, and
m(E_{i}) = lim m(X_{j}) = 0 since the sum was finite.
 
I don't understand why [itex]m(E_i) = \lim m(X_j)[/itex]. We have that

[tex]E_i = \bigcup_{j=i}^\infty X_j[/tex]

so

[tex]m(E_i) \le \sum_{j=i}^\infty m(X_j)[/tex]

I do agree that [itex]\lim m(X_j) = 0[/itex].
 
are these intervals strictly nested or can there be a smallest interval?

[edit] i need clarifying: what exactly is INT(UNION(X_i)) with two indexes i and j?
 
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sorry that's only true if the E_{i} where increasing, but

[tex]lim_{i\rightarrow\infty}\left(\sum^{\infty}_{j=i}m(X_{j})\right) =lim_{i\rightarrow\infty}m(X_{i})[/tex].

recall that if an infinite series converges you can make the remainder sum arbitrarily small.
 
You're right. That didn't occur to me. Thanks for the tip.