Sequence of Measurable Functions

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the measurability of the set E0, defined as the points in a measurable set E where a sequence of measurable functions {fn} converges. It is established that E0 is measurable based on Proposition 2, which states that a function is measurable if the inverse image of any open set is measurable. The conversation also touches on the implications of the continuity of E-1 and its relationship to the measurability of E itself. Additionally, the measurability of the lim inf and lim sup of the sequence is highlighted as relevant to understanding the convergence of the functions.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of measurable functions and sets
  • Familiarity with Proposition 2 regarding measurability
  • Knowledge of limits, specifically lim inf and lim sup
  • Basic concepts of convergence in the context of sequences
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of measurable functions in detail
  • Research the implications of lim inf and lim sup on convergence
  • Explore the relationship between continuity and measurability
  • Investigate advanced topics in measure theory, focusing on measurable sets
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, students of measure theory, and anyone studying the properties of sequences of measurable functions will benefit from this discussion.

jdcasey9
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Homework Statement



Let {fn} be a sequence of measurable functions defined on a measurable set E. Define E0 to be the set of points x in E at which {fn(x)} converges. Is the set E0 measurable?

Homework Equations



Proposition 2:

Let the function f be defined on a measurable set E. Then, f is measurable if and only if for each open set O, the inverse image of O under f, f-1(O) = {x\inE | f(x) \in 0}, is measurable.

The Attempt at a Solution



Since E0 = {x\inE| {fn(x)} converge}, then {fn(x)} \in O and by Proposition 2, E-10 is measurable. But, that doesn't mean that E is measurable...

Isn't it true that continuous E-1 being measurable implies E is measurable? Is that where I should go with this?
 
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jdcasey9 said:

Homework Statement



Let {fn} be a sequence of measurable functions defined on a measurable set E. Define E0 to be the set of points x in E at which {fn(x)} converges. Is the set E0 measurable?

Homework Equations



Proposition 2:

Let the function f be defined on a measurable set E. Then, f is measurable if and only if for each open set O, the inverse image of O under f, f-1(O) = {x\inE | f(x) \in 0}, is measurable.

The Attempt at a Solution



Since E0 = {x\inE| {fn(x)} converge}, then {fn(x)} \in O and by Proposition 2, E-10 is measurable. But, that doesn't mean that E is measurable...

Isn't it true that continuous E-1 being measurable implies E is measurable? Is that where I should go with this?

Have you shown lim inf and lim sup of a sequence of measurable functions are measurable (possibly with values in the extended reals)? The set of convergent points are where those two functions are equal.
 

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