Proving momentum expectation value vanishes for bound states

  • Context: Graduate 
  • Thread starter Thread starter einai
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Confused Quantum
Join the discussion
Registration is free. Ask a follow-up in this thread, or start your own.
4 replies · 3K views
einai
Messages
27
Reaction score
0
Hi, I came across a problem which seems to be pretty simple, but I'm stuck :confused: .

Given a Hamiltonian:
[tex]H=\frac{\vec{p}^2}{2m}+V(\vec{x})[/tex]

If |E> is a bound state of the Hamiltonian with energy eigenvalue E, show that: [tex]<E| \vec{p} |E>=0[/tex]

-----------------------------------
So I've been trying something like this:

[tex]\frac{1}{2m}<E|\vec{p} \cdot \vec{p}|E> + <E|V(\vec{x})|E> = E<E|E> = E[/tex]

but I have no idea how to proceed from here.

Thanks in advance!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
there's several ways to do this, one elegant way, one brute force way, one abstract mathematical way (probably not suitable if this is a first course).

I'll give you a hint on the brute force way. You are going to want to think of what the operator P is. Strictly speaking, in three dimensions it looks like

P = -i hbar * del. In one dimension its p = -i hbar d/dx

Use the Schroedinger formalism and plow away =)

The abstract method hint is to think of what P does to your state space. Hmm, it looks like a translational operator. Maybe what you are looking for is a statement of translational symmetry.
 
for a bound state, the wavefunction drops to zero at infinity, which allows you to use integration by parts to show that

[tex]\langle p\rangle=m\frac{d\langle x\rangle}{dt}[/tex]

and in a stationary state (i.e. energy eigenvalue), all expectation values are time independent, so the derivative vanishes.
 
Last edited:
Thanks, Haelfix and lethe :redface: .

Haelfix said:
P = -i hbar * del. In one dimension its p = -i hbar d/dx

Use the Schroedinger formalism and plow away =)

I thought about using the operator form of p, but I wasn't sure how it acts on the energy eigenstate |E>. Can I just say that after it takes the x derivative of |E>, the state becomes orthorgonal to the original |E>, ie,

[tex]<E|-i\hbar \frac{d}{dx}|E> = <E|E'> =0[/tex]

because |E'> is now orthorgonal to |E>?

Hmm...I don't think I'm doing the right thing.
 
Last edited:
I think I figured it out. I used the commutation relation p = - i m hbar*[H,x].
Thanks.