- #1

- 2

- 0

(I know how to do it with contradiction)

Let x be a rational number and y an irrational number, then x times y is irrational.

Sincerely,

V. Uljanov

- Thread starter Uljanov
- Start date

- #1

- 2

- 0

(I know how to do it with contradiction)

Let x be a rational number and y an irrational number, then x times y is irrational.

Sincerely,

V. Uljanov

- #2

pbuk

Science Advisor

Gold Member

- 2,042

- 813

- #3

- 2

- 0

In contradiction I assumed xy=m/n, and got y=m/(n*x)=ml/nk=m'/n' (x was rational), and this lead to the contradiction of y beeing irrational from the start.

- #4

pbuk

Science Advisor

Gold Member

- 2,042

- 813

You see the contrapositive of "A implies B" is "(Not B) implies (not A)". With proof by contradiction you assume (not B) and demonstrate (not A), so proof by contradiction is essentially the same as proof of the contrapositive.

If this seems a bit circular and tautological it is because this is a bad example. Contrapositive proofs only make sense where there is no obvious proof of "A implies B", but it is possible to prove "(Not B) implies (not A)".

Here is a better example: "If the angles of a triangle don't add up to 180° the surface is non-Euclidean"; the easiest way to prove this is to prove the contrapositive: if the surface is Euclidean (so we can constuct a line parallel to any side), the angles of a triangle add up to 180°.

- Last Post

- Replies
- 3

- Views
- 7K

- Last Post

- Replies
- 7

- Views
- 5K

- Last Post

- Replies
- 9

- Views
- 1K

- Replies
- 2

- Views
- 1K

- Last Post

- Replies
- 3

- Views
- 1K

- Last Post

- Replies
- 2

- Views
- 3K

- Replies
- 7

- Views
- 941