Pulling out partial derivatives?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the manipulation of partial derivatives in the context of quantum mechanics, specifically regarding the normalization of wave functions as presented in Griffiths' textbook. Participants explore the application of the product rule and the validity of pulling out partial operators in mathematical expressions.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation, Conceptual clarification, Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions how a partial derivative operator can be pulled out in a specific expression related to wave function normalization.
  • Another participant suggests that applying the product rule to the expression will yield terms that cancel out, implying that the original expression can be recovered.
  • A further reply elaborates that applying the product rule to the first term results in a cancellation with a term from the second term, supporting the previous claim.
  • A later reply expresses relief, indicating that the confusion stemmed from a misunderstanding of properties of partial derivatives.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants engage in a debate over the manipulation of partial derivatives, with some agreeing on the application of the product rule while others express initial confusion. The discussion does not reach a consensus on the underlying principles but clarifies the process involved.

Contextual Notes

Participants do not explicitly state all assumptions regarding the properties of partial derivatives, and the discussion relies on the context of quantum mechanics without resolving all mathematical steps involved.

Cogswell
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I'm reading through the book Quantum Mechanics (Second Edition) by David J. Griffiths and it got to the part about proving that if you normalise a wave function, it stays normalised (Page 13).

That part that I don't get is how they say:

## \dfrac{i \hbar}{2m} \left( \Psi^* \dfrac{\partial^2 \Psi}{\partial x^2} - \dfrac{\partial^2 \Psi^*}{\partial x^2} \Psi \right) = \dfrac{\partial}{\partial x} \left[\dfrac{i \hbar}{2m} \left( \Psi^* \dfrac{\partial \Psi}{\partial x} - \dfrac{\partial \Psi^*}{\partial x} \Psi \right) \right] ##

How can they just pull out a partial operator like that?
Because if you expand it out again it would give you:

## \dfrac{i \hbar}{2m} \left( \dfrac{\partial}{\partial x} \left[ \Psi^* \dfrac{\partial \Psi}{\partial x}\right] - \dfrac{\partial}{\partial x} \left[ \dfrac{\partial \Psi^*}{\partial x} \Psi \right] \right) ##

The operator will be applied to the wrong ## \Psi ## and also won't you need to apply the product rule to is as well?
 
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Cogswell said:
and also won't you need to apply the product rule to is as well?

If you do just what you said, you'll see that the extra terms cancel and you'll be back at the original expression. Take out a scrap of paper.
 
If you apply the product rule to the first term of ## \dfrac{i \hbar}{2m} \left( \dfrac{\partial}{\partial x} \left[ \Psi^* \dfrac{\partial \Psi}{\partial x}\right] - \dfrac{\partial}{\partial x} \left[ \dfrac{\partial \Psi^*}{\partial x} \Psi \right] \right) ##, you'll get a term ## \dfrac{\partial \Psi}{\partial x}\dfrac{\partial \Psi^*}{\partial x}##, which cancels out with a term ##- \dfrac{\partial \Psi}{\partial x}\dfrac{\partial \Psi^*}{\partial x}## you'll get if you apply the product rule to the second term.
 
Haha right, thank you. I thought there was a special property of partial derivatives that I didn't know.
 

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