Quantum-Classical limit of Zonal Harmonics

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the behavior of zonal harmonics (set m=0) in the context of their classical limit compared to equatorial harmonics (set m=l). It is established that while equatorial harmonics converge to a Dirac delta function along the equator, zonal harmonics do not converge to a Dirac delta at the poles; instead, they converge to a fixed Bessel function. The participants explore the implications of angular momentum and the concept of superposition in understanding this phenomenon, particularly the slower convergence of zonal harmonics.

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  • Understanding of spherical harmonics and their mathematical properties
  • Familiarity with Dirac delta functions and their significance in quantum mechanics
  • Knowledge of Bessel functions and their applications in physics
  • Concepts of angular momentum in quantum mechanics
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  • Study the differences between equatorial and zonal harmonics in detail
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Physicists, mathematicians, and students studying quantum mechanics, particularly those interested in the properties of spherical harmonics and their applications in quantum scattering and angular momentum analysis.

"pi"mp
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Hi all, I'm studying the spherical harmonics, specifically the zonals (set m=0). With the equatorial harmonics(set m=l), the classical limit is pretty darn clear; the particle just accumulates to a Dirac delta along the equator, but I've proven that the zonals don't converge to a Dirac Delta at the north and south pole. They certainly accumulate there, but they converge to a fixed Bessel function instead of a genuine Dirac. Does anyone have any ideas on the classical picture emerging here? I've heard some talk of quantum scattering but I'm really not sure.

My personal thought is that with the equatorials, there is really only one plane perpendicular to the z axis and we know the angular momentum vector converges to the z-axis ==> by symmetry, they must necessarily be "orbiting" in a plane in the limit. However, with the zonals, all we know is that the z component of the angular momentum is zero. But there are infinitely many planes with normals vectors of zero z component. Is there some kind up superposition going on here that's preventing us from getting a genuine Dirac?

Thanks!
 
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With the equatorial harmonics(set m=l), the classical limit is pretty darn clear; the particle just accumulates to a Dirac delta along the equator, but I've proven that the zonals don't converge to a Dirac Delta at the north and south pole.

What do you mean by classical limit - limit of one Y function for large [itex]l[/itex]?

And what is mathematical meaning of "particle just accumulates to a Dirac delta" ? That the probability density [itex]|\psi|^2[/itex] localizes around the equator and falls to zero elsewhere?

There is no reason why the spherical functions should give localized prob. distribution around poles or elsewhere - typically these functions are non-zero all over the sphere.
 
I've proven that the modulus square of the equatorial harmonics (m=l) genuinely converge to a "line Dirac Delta" so to speak at the equator. This is the classical limit because it corresponds to orbital motion (in the limit, of course)

However, the zonal harmonics (m=0) accumulate at the north and south pole but they're not quite genuine Dirac Delta functions. The zonals converge to a Bessel functions with a slightly modified argument. Buy yes, in all of this I mean l going to infinity.

I was just wondering if anyone knew why the zonals converge slower.
 

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