Quantum entanglement between fermions

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers on the existence of quantum entanglement between fermions that have never interacted, particularly in the context of states described by Slater determinants. Participants explore theoretical implications, definitions, and the role of antisymmetrization in fermionic systems.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants question whether a Slater determinant can describe states of fermions that have never interacted, suggesting that interaction is necessary for the antisymmetric state it represents.
  • Others argue that the definition of the Slater determinant is independent of whether the fermions interact, asserting that it can still apply to free fermions.
  • A participant introduces the concept of fermionic Fock states, emphasizing that antisymmetrization must occur regardless of interaction, and that entanglement does not require interaction.
  • Some participants reference scientific articles that discuss entanglement in non-interacting fermionic systems, suggesting that such states can exist.
  • There is a discussion about the implications of using Slater determinants for single fermions and whether it makes sense in that context.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the necessity of interaction for the application of Slater determinants and the nature of fermionic entanglement. The discussion remains unresolved, with multiple competing perspectives presented.

Contextual Notes

Participants highlight the importance of antisymmetrization in describing fermionic states, but there is uncertainty regarding the implications of non-interaction on the use of Slater determinants and the nature of entanglement.

limarodessa
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Hi all

Can you help me?

Can the quantum entanglement exist between fermions which never interacted each other?

For example – if this states of fermions are described by Slater determinant

Does exist some papers from scientific journals about this theme?

Thank you in advance for answer
 
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Er.. back up a bit. When you already have a fermionic state described by Slater determinant, aren't there already 2 or more interacting fermions that have to have their spins aligned "just right" to produce the anti-symmetric state?

Zz.
 
ZapperZ said:
When you already have a fermionic state described by Slater determinant, aren't there already 2 or more interacting fermions that have to have their spins aligned "just right" to produce the anti-symmetric state?

Zz.

So, if fermions had no interacted their states cannot be described by Slater determinant ?
 
limarodessa said:
So, if fermions had no interacted their states cannot be described by Slater determinant ?

Is there any sense of using the Slater determinant for ONE fermion?

Zz.
 
ZapperZ said:
Is there any sense of using the Slater determinant for ONE fermion?

Zz.

There may be several fermions. But can we use the Slater determinant for fermions which never interacted each other ?
 
limarodessa said:
There may be several fermions. But can we use the Slater determinant for fermions which never interacted each other ?

I don't think you understand what the Slater determinant is for. Why do you think you use the Slater determinant?

If I have non-interacting fermions, I don't have to use the Slater determinant. How the total wavefunction really is for all these non-interacting particles is irrelevant, because they don't "sense" each other. But when they do, the fermionic statistics will kick in. By definition, they are now interacting with each other because now, the total wavefunction for all the particles involved must be antisymmetric.

Zz.
 
ZapperZ said:
If I have non-interacting fermions, I don't have to use the Slater determinant.
Zz.

Thanks
 
ZapperZ said:
How the total wavefunction really is for all these non-interacting particles is irrelevant, because they don't "sense" each other. But when they do, the fermionic statistics will kick in. By definition, they are now interacting with each other because now, the total wavefunction for all the particles involved must be antisymmetric.

Zz.

Well. But what you can say about this ? :

http://www.springerlink.com/content/mt368h1295458112/

'...It is then shown that a non-interacting collection of fermions at zero temperature can be entangled in spin...'
 
  • #10
ZapperZ said:
If I have non-interacting fermions, I don't have to use the Slater determinant. How the total wavefunction really is for all these non-interacting particles is irrelevant, because they don't "sense" each other. But when they do, the fermionic statistics will kick in. By definition, they are now interacting with each other because now, the total wavefunction for all the particles involved must be antisymmetric.
Sorry, but I disagree.

Let's not discuss Slater determinants and wave functions but fermionic Fock states. A twp-particle state is described by

[tex]|1,1\rangle = b_\mu^\dagger b_\nu^\dagger|0\rangle[/tex]

Each fermionic creation operators create a single fermion; the two indices indicate that there are several quantum numbers, e.g. a spin; they must be different otherwise the resulting stet is exactly zero

[tex]b_\mu^\dagger b_\mu^\dagger|0\rangle = \left(b_\mu^\dagger\right)^2|0\rangle = 0[/tex]

Now if you interchange the two operators you get a minus sign

[tex]b_\nu^\dagger b_\mu^\dagger|0\rangle = -|1,1\rangle[/tex]

This is exactly what the we need in order to achieve a totally antisymmetric state; we do not have explicit antisymmetrization, the fermionic commutation relation already takes this into account.

It is important that we did not specify how the two fermions would interact. We didn't specify a Hamiltonian at all. That means that antisymmetrization comes prior to interaction; it must always be implemented for fermions - even for free = non-interacting fermions. Or let's say it the other way round: antisymmetrization and entanglement is not to be confused with interaction.
 
  • #11
Er... read again the logic of the question. ...if this states of fermions are described by Slater determinant..., meaning you START with states that have been regulated by it!

Zz.
 
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  • #12
The definition of the Slater determinant (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Slater_determinant) is independent on whether the identical fermions interact or not. A multi-electron state can be constructed with the Slater determinant, but the electrons could very well be free. The state of the 2 electrons in ionized helium atom for which the electrostatic interaction b/w the electrons can be neglected (thus one being kept in the atom and the other thrown to kilometers away) is still described by an antisymmetric 2-particle wavefunction, because the 2 electrons are identical fermions.

Anyways, the one of the articles quoted by the initiator of the thread (http://www.springerlink.com/content/mt368h1295458112/) pretty much answers his question.
 
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  • #13
ZapperZ said:
Er... read again the logic of the question. ...if this states of fermions are described by Slater determinant..., meaning you START with states that have been regulated by it!

Zz.
If you want to talk about multi-fermion-states then they must always be constructed using antisymmetrization[/U]; whether you do that using a Slater determinant for wave functions or via Fock states doesn't matter. If you don't antisymmetrize you shouldn't call these babies "fermions".
And it has nothing to do with interaction.
 
  • #14

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