Quantum - infinite chain of wells

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the quantum mechanics of an electron tunneling between potential wells, specifically analyzing the probability of finding the electron in well 0 or above. The state of the electron is represented as a superposition of states, with the coefficients defined by the equation \( a_n=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\left(\frac{-i}{3}\right)^{|n|/2}e^{in\pi} \). The probability calculation is debated, with a preference for the sum of individual probabilities \( |a_0|^2 + |a_1|^2 + ... \) over the squared sum of coefficients \( |a_0 + a_2 + ...|^2 \). The relevance of the phase factor is clarified, indicating it only matters when evolving the state with a non-diagonal Hamiltonian.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of quantum mechanics principles, particularly superposition and tunneling.
  • Familiarity with quantum state notation and inner product calculations.
  • Knowledge of Hamiltonians and their role in quantum state evolution.
  • Proficiency in complex numbers and their applications in quantum mechanics.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the implications of quantum tunneling in various potential well configurations.
  • Learn about the role of Hamiltonians in quantum mechanics, focusing on non-diagonal Hamiltonians.
  • Explore the concept of normalization in quantum states and its mathematical significance.
  • Investigate the effects of phase factors in quantum superposition and interference patterns.
USEFUL FOR

Quantum physicists, students of quantum mechanics, and researchers exploring electron behavior in potential wells will benefit from this discussion.

Toby_phys
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An electron can tunnel between potential wells. Its state can be written as:


$$
|\psi\rangle=\sum^\infty_{-\infty}a_n|n\rangle
$$

Where $|n \rangle$ is the state at which it is in the $n$th potential well, n increases from left to right.

$$
a_n=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\left(\frac{-i}{3}\right)^{|n|/2}e^{in\pi}
$$

What is the probability of finding the election in well $0$ or above?

Is this probability
$$|a_0|^2+|a_1|^2+...$$
or is it $$|a_0+a_2+...|^2$$?

I am leaning towards the first option but this doesn't use the exponential phase factor. My reasoning is, let $$|\phi \rangle$$ be the superposition of everything 0 and above:
$$
|\phi\rangle=\frac{\sum^{\infty}_{0}a_n|n\rangle}{\sqrt{\sum^{\infty}_0|a_n|^2}}
$$

The denominator normalises everything.
Taking the inner product we get:

$$
\langle\phi|\psi \rangle=\frac{\sum^{\infty}_{0}|a_n|^2}{\sqrt{\sum^{\infty}_0|a_n|^2}}=\sqrt{\sum^{\infty}_0|a_n|^2}
$$

The mod square of this is the sum of the individual probabilities.
 
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Toby_phys said:
Is this probability
$$|a_0|^2+|a_1|^2+...$$
This one.

The phase factor will only be relevant if you start evolving the state with a Hamiltonian that is not diagonal in the given basis or want to know if the system is in a particular state that is a different linear combination.
 
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