Quantum measurement with incomplete basis?

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the violation of Bell inequalities using quantum measurement with incomplete bases, specifically for three binary variables. The Bell inequality presented is P(A=B) + P(A=C) + P(B=C) ≥ 1, which holds for any probability distribution of three coins. A specific quantum state, ψ=(|001⟩ + |010⟩ + |100⟩ + |011⟩ + |101⟩ + |110⟩)/√6, is analyzed for its probability distribution when measuring two out of three variables. The conclusion is that normalization of the probabilities derived from an incomplete basis is not feasible without significant assumptions, and the ratios between values can be compared instead.

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jarekduda
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In page 9 of http://www.theory.caltech.edu/people/preskill/ph229/notes/chap4.pdf we can find simple form of Bell inequalities for three binary variables:
$$ P(A=B) + P(A=C) + P(B=C) \geq 1 $$
which is kind of obvious: "This is satisfied by any probability distribution for the three coins because no matter what the values of the coins, there will always be two that are the same."
This lecture also contains example of state for which QM gives P(A=B) + P(A=C) + P(B=C) =3/4 violation.

For Bell violation by MERW, I wanted to construct an example of its violation using only real non-negative amplitudes, getting this candidate (|ABC>):
$$\psi=(|001\rangle + |010\rangle +|100\rangle +|011\rangle +|101\rangle +|110\rangle)/\sqrt{6}$$
The question is: what is the probability distribution when measuring two out of three such variables?
The interesting basis for measuring first two variables (AB, taking trace over C), is:
$$n_{00}=(|000\rangle+|001\rangle) /\sqrt{2}\qquad
n_{01}=(|010\rangle+|011\rangle) / \sqrt{2}$$
$$n_{10}=(|100\rangle+|101\rangle ) / \sqrt{2}\qquad
n_{11}=(|110\rangle+|111\rangle) / \sqrt{2}$$
getting
$$|\langle n_{00}|\psi\rangle|^2=1/12\quad
|\langle n_{01}|\psi\rangle|^2=4/12 \quad
|\langle n_{10}|\psi\rangle|^2=4/12 \quad
|\langle n_{11}|\psi\rangle|^2=1/12 $$
However, as this basis is not complete, instead of 1, these four possibilities sum to 10/12.
Can we normalize by this 10/12?
Getting probability of 00 as 1/10, and finally violation to P(A=B) + P(A=C) + P(B=C) = 6/10?
 
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A Bell test needs to take into account runs that are discarded or missed (e.g. ones that return a wrong extra measurement result that you don't want). Otherwise the inequality can be violated via the fair sampling loophole instead of via non-classical stuff.

Short answer: no, I don't think you can normalize it.
 
Exact, you cannot normalize without a lot of assumptions.
However, you can compare the ratios between the values. They are not the same in the alternative HV theories without normalization.
 

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