Quantum Mechanics Infinite Potential Well -- Check Answers please

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a quantum mechanics problem involving a particle in a one-dimensional infinite potential well. The original poster is self-studying and seeks to verify their understanding of the wave function, energy eigenvalues, and related calculations.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to expand the wave function in terms of eigenfunctions and compute expansion coefficients. They raise questions about the correctness of their calculations for energy measurements and expectation values.
  • Some participants question the method used to find the expectation value of the inverse energy, suggesting a different approach.
  • Others express uncertainty about the implications of their findings and whether certain eigenvalues can be observed.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the original poster's calculations, providing guidance on specific aspects such as the expectation value of energy. There is an ongoing exploration of different interpretations and methods, particularly regarding the calculation of expectation values.

Contextual Notes

There is a noted concern about the completeness of the original poster's answers, particularly regarding time dependency in their calculations and the implications of their findings on observable eigenvalues.

Irishdoug
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Homework Statement
I'm self studying so I just want to ensure my answers are correct so I know I truly understand the material as it's easy to trick yourself in thinking you do!

A particle of mass m is in a 1-D infinite potential well of width a given by the potential:

V= ##\sqrt{4]/{a}## for 0 ##\leq## x ##\leq## a/4
= ##\infty## elsewhere
Relevant Equations
See below.
I'm self studying so I just want to ensure my answers are correct so I know I truly understand the material as it's easy to trick yourself in thinking you do!

A particle of mass m is in a 1-D infinite potential well of width a given by the potential:

V= 0 for 0##\leq## x ##\leq## a
= ##\infty## for x<a ; x>a

The particle is located in the leftmost quarter of the well at time t = 0 and is described by the wave-function:

##\Psi (x, t=0)## = ##\sqrt{\frac{4}{a}}## for 0 ##\leq## x ##\leq## a/4
= 0 elsewhere

The eigen-functions and eigen-energies are given by ##\phi##(x) = ##\sqrt{\frac{2}{a}}## sin(##\frac{n\pi x}{a}##) and ##E_{n}## = ##{{\hbar}^2 {\pi}^2 {n}^2}/{2m {a}^2}##

Q.1 Write the expansion of the wavefunction ##\Psi ##(x,0) in terms of the eigenfunctions and explicitly compute the expansion co-efficients ##c_{n}##

##\Psi##(x,0) = ##\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} c_{n} \phi_{n}## = ##c_{1} \sqrt{\frac{2}{a}}## sin(##\frac{\pi x}{a}##) + ##c_{2} \sqrt{\frac{2}{a}}## sin(##\frac{2 \pi x}{a}##)... etc.

##c_{n}## = ##\int_{0}^{a/4} \sqrt{\frac{2}{a}} sin( \frac{n\pi x}{a}) \Psi (x,0)dx ##

##\rightarrow## ##\sqrt{\frac{2}{a}} \sqrt{{4}/{a}}## ##\int_{0}^{a/4} sin( \frac{n\pi x}{a}) dx ##

##\rightarrow## -##\frac{8}{a} ( \frac{a}{n \pi} cos (\frac{n\pi x}{a}##))

##\rightarrow## carry out substitution for x

##\rightarrow## -##\frac{8}{n\pi}( cos (\frac{n\pi}{4})) - 1##

so; ##c_{n}## = ##\frac{8-4\sqrt{2}}{n\pi }## for n = odd ; ##\frac{8}{n\pi }## for n = even

Q.2 Give an expression for ##\Psi##(x,t) for some later arbitrary time t

##\Psi##(x,t) = ##c_{n}## ##\phi_{n}(x)## ##exp(\frac{-i Ent}{\hbar})## = ##c_{n}## ## \sqrt{\frac{2}{a}}## ## sin( \frac{n\pi x}{a}) ## ##exp(\frac{-i Ent}{\hbar}##)

Q.3 If an energy measurement is made, what values will be observed and with what probabilities?

I said multiples of ##E_{0}## i.e ##n^{2}## ##(\frac{{\hbar}^2 {\pi}^2}{2m {a}^2}##) where n= 1, 2, 3 etc.

I'm not sure if this is correct. The probabilities are then given by ##|c_{n}|^{2}##

Q.4. What is the probability of measuring ##E_{2}##?

##{|c_{2}|^2}## = ##{\frac{-8}{2\pi}}^2## ##({cos\frac{2\pi}{4} -1})^2##

##\rightarrow## (##{\frac{-8}{2\pi}})^2##(##{-1}^2##) = ##\frac{16}{\pi \pi}##

Q.5 Are there energy egenvalues that will never be observed?

In theory, all eigenvalues can be observed, however in reality some will not as there is not enough time to make measurements to observe all eigen-values.

**I presume this is incorrect but I am unsure how to answer it**

Q.6 Give an expression for the expectation value of the inverse energy ##<\frac{1}{E}>## as a function of time.

##\int_{0}^{a/4} \phi^{*} E \phi dx##

##\frac{\hbar^{2}}{2m}## ##\frac{\partial^2 sin(\frac{n \pi x}{a} )exp(\frac{iEt}{\hbar})}{\partial x^2}##

= ##\frac{\hbar^{2}}{2m}## (-##\frac{a}{n \pi}^{2} ##) ##sin(\frac{n \pi x}{a} )exp(\frac{-iEt}{\hbar})##

so, -##\frac{4 \hbar^{2}}{2m n^{2} \pi^{2}}## ##\int_{0}^{a/4}## ## sin(\frac{n \pi x}{a} )exp(\frac{iEt}{\hbar}) ## ##sin(\frac{n \pi x}{a} )exp(\frac{-iEt}{\hbar})## dxThe exponentials cancel are left with:

-##\frac{4 \hbar^{2}}{2m n^{2} \pi^{2}}## ##\int_{0}^{a/4}## ## sin^{2}(\frac{n \pi x}{a} )##

= -##\frac{4 \hbar^{2}}{2m n^{2} \pi^{2}}## (##\frac{ -2a sin(\frac{n\pi}{2}) - \pi an}{8\pi n}##)

= +##\frac{4 \hbar^{2}}{2m n^{2} \pi^{2}}## (##\frac{ 2a sin(\frac{n\pi}{2}) - \pi an}{8\pi n}##)

You then put this over 1 to get the answer.

I believe this is incorrect however as I have no time dependency! Can someone point out where I have gone wrong. Thankyou.
 
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I think you need to find ##<1/E>## whereas you have found ##<E>##. You can use following:
$$<E^{-1}>= \sum_n|c_n ^2| E_n ^{-1}$$
 
What I did was find <E>, and then I put this over 1. My answer should read:

##\frac{2mn^{2}\pi^{2}}{4\hbar^{2}} \frac{8 \pi n}{2a sin(\frac{n\pi}{2}) - \pi n}##

Is this method incorrect?
 
Irishdoug said:
What I did was find <E>, and then I put this over 1. My answer should read:

##\frac{2mn^{2}\pi^{2}}{4\hbar^{2}} \frac{8 \pi n}{2a sin(\frac{n\pi}{2}) - \pi n}##

Is this method incorrect?
Yes, it's incorrect. E.g. the average of ##1,3## is ##2##. But the average of ##1, 1/3## is not ##1/2##.
 
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