Quantum Tunneling and Entanglement

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SUMMARY

This discussion clarifies that quantum entanglement cannot be used for faster-than-light (FTL) communication, as the measurement of entangled particles does not convey information instantaneously. The concept of quantum tunneling is explained as an instantaneous process, but it does not allow for the transfer of information or matter at FTL speeds. Once a particle is measured, its probability distribution evolves at a finite speed, adhering to the speed of light limit. The conversation emphasizes the fundamental principles of quantum mechanics that prevent FTL communication and the misinterpretation of entanglement.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of quantum mechanics principles
  • Familiarity with quantum entanglement concepts
  • Knowledge of quantum tunneling phenomena
  • Basic grasp of probability distributions in quantum physics
NEXT STEPS
  • Research the implications of quantum entanglement on information theory
  • Explore the mathematical foundations of quantum tunneling
  • Investigate the limitations of quantum communication technologies
  • Examine current theories on faster-than-light travel and their scientific validity
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Physicists, quantum mechanics students, researchers in quantum communication, and anyone interested in the implications of quantum theories on information transfer and travel.

MattRob
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Alright, so there's definitely a lot of Sci-Fi hype about Entanglement. I'm sort of hoping the experts on the subject can set this straight.
Question: Could it actually be used to transfer information instantly from one point to another, seemingly providing FTL communication?

And second, does Quantum tunneling occur instantly? If so, could it be used somehow to transfer information/matter at FTL?

Long answer, sil'vu plait. :-)
I.e. Why or why not?
 
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1) Nope. Imagine I randomly select a ball from a set of a blue ball and a red ball. I send one to A and one to B. When A gets his ball, he'll immediately know which one B got. Can A send information 'instantly' to B this way? No.

Entanglement is weirder than that, because the way quantum mechanics works, it's not a case of merely not-knowing if the ball is red or blue; the balls are in a truly undefined state until their color is 'measured', entangled such that one must be blue and the other then red, but without actually having any real but 'hidden' value. So this raises the strange question of how the ball at A 'knows' it's supposed to be blue once the ball at B has been measured to be red? It appears as if they're somehow 'communicating' (although it's not necessarily the case), and that communication (if it exists) would be instantaneous.

But from the standpoint of the people at A and B this makes no difference. They still can't use the entanglement for communication.

2) As for tunneling, it occurs instantaneously. But what tunneling is, is having a particle in a similarly undefined location, where there's probability of finding the particle in one region or another, even though there may be an exactly zero probability of finding the particle in the areas in-between. You can't really say the particle 'traveled' from point A to point B, since by definition, it doesn't have a location, just a probability of being in a location.

Once a particle has been measured at a particular location, though, this probability distribution evolves at a finite speed. So once it's been measured at point A, you will - to an extremely high degree of probability - not be able to measure it at B until after some time that doesn't exceed the speed of light.
 
Wow. Thanks. Extremely helpful answer and very insightful. Nicely done.
For a Feynman-ish answer, light barrier's a darned bugger, isn't it?

EDIT: http://jamesmessig.wordpress.com/2009/10/07/quantum-tunneling-of-space-craft-step-by-step-for-effective-faster-than-light-travel-velocities-over-interstellar-distances/ an article I just found on the subject. Thoughts?
 
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Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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