Question about a logic notation

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  • #1
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(x∈R → f(x)>0) → f is asmani.

What does it mean:

1. If there exists some x in R such that f(x)>0, then f is asmani.

2. If for all x in R we have f(x)>0, then f is asmani.

3. It's ambiguous or meaningless.

4. ...?

Thanks in advance.
 
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  • #2
tiny-tim
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(x∈R → f(x)>0) → f is asmani
2. If for all x in R we have f(x)>0, then f is asmani. :smile:
 
  • #3
HallsofIvy
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And now I am going to spend all day wondering what "asmani" means!
 
  • #4
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2. If for all x in R we have f(x)>0, then f is asmani. :smile:
Thanks. Is that a common formulation?
And now I am going to spend all day wondering what "asmani" means!
asmani means skiey (or of sky) in Persian, although I didn't mean that!
 
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  • #5
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I think it means always positive. Frankly, I have never seen that word.
 
  • #6
tiny-tim
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Thanks. Is that a common formulation?
not sure i understand you :confused:

that is the only interpretation of your original formula :smile:
asmani means skiey (or of sky) in Persian, although I didn't mean that!
haha! :biggrin:

as a matter of interest, does "armani" mean anything in Persian?
 
  • #7
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not sure i understand you :confused:

that is the only interpretation of your original formula :smile:
No, I mean the original formula. Is it a common formula in order to say "If for all x in R we have f(x)>0, then f is asmani"
I mean the original formula. Is that a common formulation in order to say "If for all x in R we have f(x)>0, then f is asmani"?
haha! :biggrin:

as a matter of interest, does "armani" mean anything in Persian?
Yes, it means "ideal". :smile:
 
  • #8
tiny-tim
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I mean the original formula. Is that a common formulation in order to say "If for all x in R we have f(x)>0, then f is asmani"?
yes, that is a standard form of definition

eg: "if, for all non-zero vectors x, xTAx > 0, then A is positive definite" :wink:
 

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