Question about a logic notation

[asmani]

(x∈R → f(x)>0) → f is asmani.

What does it mean:

1. If there exists some x in R such that f(x)>0, then f is asmani.

2. If for all x in R we have f(x)>0, then f is asmani.

3. It's ambiguous or meaningless.

4. ...?

Thanks in advance.

 

[tiny-tim]

(x∈R → f(x)>0) → f is asmani

2. If for all x in R we have f(x)>0, then f is asmani.

 

[HallsofIvy]

And now I am going to spend all day wondering what "asmani" means!

 

[asmani]

2. If for all x in R we have f(x)>0, then f is asmani.

Thanks. Is that a common formulation?

And now I am going to spend all day wondering what "asmani" means!

asmani means skiey (or of sky) in Persian, although I didn't mean that!

 

[dalcde]

I think it means always positive. Frankly, I have never seen that word.

 

[tiny-tim]

Thanks. Is that a common formulation?

not sure i understand you …

that is the only interpretation of your original formula ​

asmani means skiey (or of sky) in Persian, although I didn't mean that!

haha!

as a matter of interest, does "armani" mean anything in Persian?

 

[asmani]

not sure i understand you …

that is the only interpretation of your original formula ​

No, I mean the original formula. Is it a common formula in order to say "If for all x in R we have f(x)>0, then f is asmani"

I mean the original formula. Is that a common formulation in order to say "If for all x in R we have f(x)>0, then f is asmani"?

haha!

as a matter of interest, does "armani" mean anything in Persian?

Yes, it means "ideal".

 

[tiny-tim]

I mean the original formula. Is that a common formulation in order to say "If for all x in R we have f(x)>0, then f is asmani"?

yes, that is a standard form of definition

eg: "if, for all non-zero vectors x, x^TAx > 0, then A is positive definite"