I can find various derivations of ∫ dθ = 0 which are satisfactory, but none of ∫dθ θ =1.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

Cheng and Li says it's just a normalization convention, of course that assumes that the integral is finite.

Is this just a matter of definition, or is there a better reason that that?

And would any of this relate to the exterior calculus, since I believe Grassmann algebra is an example of (or is) exterior albegra.

Thanks very much !

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# Question about Grassmann Integral

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