Yes, I suppose that was a trivial question. Indeed the answer you provided is also given in my book. I suppose what I should have asked is: what does it "mean" for one ideal to be strictly larger than another. In particular, if the terms in one ideal are not divisible by the terms in a second ideal, does this make the first ideal larger?
I'm sorry that I am phrasing my questions rather imprecisely. But I don't take algebra courses very often (I generally favor analysis), so I'm still trying to figure out precisely what ideals are and why they are of interest to mathematicians. I'd be very interested to hear any insight you've got on this.