Question on orthogonal function with respect to weight.

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In the discussion, it is established that two functions F(x) and G(x) can be orthogonal with respect to a weight function W(x) without being orthogonal to each other. Specifically, the integral condition \int F(x)G(x)W(x)dx=0 does not imply that \int F(x)G(x)dx=0. Furthermore, if the latter condition holds true, it indicates that the weight function W(x) must be equal to 1.

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yungman
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If F(x) and G(x) is orthogonal with respect to weight W(x), does this mean F(x) and G(x) are not necessary orthogonal by themselves?

[tex]\int[/tex]F(x)G(x)W(x)dx=0 do not mean [tex]\int[/tex]F(x)G(x)dx=0

If [tex]\int[/tex]F(x)G(x)dx=0 then W(x)=1

Thanks

Alan
 
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Yes, correct on both items.
 
Thanks.
Alan
 

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