Hi,(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

I was studying the solution of Schrodinger equation with no potential and found that the wave function is just a single plane wave e^{ikx}for movement of the particle in positive x direction.

But when the phase velocity of a single wave is calculated it turns out to be less than the particle's velocity and from that argument is made that the de broglie wave, which is associated with a particle, is not a single wave but superposition of waves.

So my question is that how one single wave (which we have found by solving TISE for no potential) can describe a particle, when from the calculation of phase velocity and group velocity we know that a particle can be described by a group of waves?

Any kind of help will be highly appreciated.Thanks in advance

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Question on wave function of free particle

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**