Relationship between Riemann sums and integrals

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Homework Statement


Question regarding #16

Scanned page from a sample examination showing multiple-choice questions 15 and 16 with answer boxes; question 16 asks for the limit as n approaches infinity of (1/n)(sin(pi/n) + sin(2pi/n) + ... + sin(n pi/n)) with options 0, 2/pi, pi/2, 2, 2pi.



Homework Equations



Riemman Sum

The Attempt at a Solution



I know that the limit of the Riemman Sum is basically the integral. However, I do not know where to go from there. Do I need to use the Summation formulas? Thanks
 
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can you write down the expression for a Riemann integral. something like:

[tex]\int_a^b f(x) dx = \lim_{N \to \infty} \sum_{n=1}^N ?[/tex]

what goes in the question marks?

also, even though Riemann doesn't, assume things in the ? are equally spaced. that's usually good enough.
 
Last edited:
rbj said:
can you write down the expression for a Riemann integral. something like:

[tex]\int_a^b f(x) dx = \lim_{N \to \infty} \sum_{n=1}^N ?[/tex]

what goes in the question marks?

also, even though Riemann doesn't, assume things in the ? are equally spaced. that's usually good enough.

Well, here's what I have so far:

[tex]\int_a^b f(x) dx = \lim_{N \to \infty} \sum_{n=1}^N (\frac{1}{N}\sin(\frac{\pi i}{N})[/tex]
 
So what part of that sum is dx and what part is f(x)? After you know f(x), what is its integral?