Relatively prime proof involving a^n and b^n

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The discussion centers on proving that if natural numbers a and b are relatively prime, then a^n and b^n are also relatively prime. The proof utilizes the definition of relatively prime numbers and the fundamental theorem of arithmetic, establishing that the prime factorization of a and b remains consistent when raised to the power of n. Participants confirm that since a and a^n share the same prime factors, as do b and b^n, it follows that a^n and b^n must also be relatively prime. The conclusion is that the proof can be simplified by directly referencing the corollaries regarding prime factorization.

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  • Understanding of the concept of relatively prime numbers
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  • Explore the fundamental theorem of arithmetic in greater detail
  • Learn about corollaries related to prime factorization
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Homework Statement


Show that if a, b, n, m are Natural Numbers such that a and b are relatively prime, then a^n and b^n are relatively prime.

Homework Equations


Relatively prime means 1 = am + bn where a and b are relatively prime. gcd(a,b) = 1

We have a couple corollaries that may be beneficial:
1. Suppose a, n are positive integers. Then a and a^n have the same prime factors.
2. Let a, n be positive integers. a^(1/n) is either an integer or it's irrational.

The Attempt at a Solution



By definition of relatively prime, 1 = ax + by where x,y exist as integers.
By the fundamental theorem o arithmetic:
a = p1*p2*...*pm where this is the unique prime factorization.
b = p1*p2*...*pd
m,d are natural numbers.

By the corollarly, a^n = p1^n*p2^n*...*pm^n
b^n = p1^n*p2^n*...*pd^n

So we start with
1 = ax + by
1 = (p1*p2*...*pm)*x + (p1*p2*...*pd)y****All I have left to do is find the way to raise this to the power of n. If I can raise it such that
1^n = (ax)^n + (by)^n the proof is done, easily, with what I have set up.

Question: Is this step needed? Can I just use the corollary to say that "by the corollary" since a and a^n have the same prime factorization and b and b^n have the same prime factorization, then we see a^n and b^n must be relatively prime?
 
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RJLiberator said:

Homework Statement


Show that if a, b, n, m are Natural Numbers such that a and b are relatively prime, then a^n and b^n are relatively prime.

Homework Equations


Relatively prime means 1 = am + bn where a and b are relatively prime. gcd(a,b) = 1

We have a couple corollaries that may be beneficial:
1. Suppose a, n are positive integers. Then a and a^n have the same prime factors.
2. Let a, n be positive integers. a^(1/n) is either an integer or it's irrational.

The Attempt at a Solution



By definition of relatively prime, 1 = ax + by where x,y exist as integers.
By the fundamental theorem o arithmetic:
a = p1*p2*...*pm where this is the unique prime factorization.
b = p1*p2*...*pd
m,d are natural numbers.

By the corollarly, a^n = p1^n*p2^n*...*pm^n
b^n = p1^n*p2^n*...*pd^n

So we start with
1 = ax + by
1 = (p1*p2*...*pm)*x + (p1*p2*...*pd)y****All I have left to do is find the way to raise this to the power of n. If I can raise it such that
1^n = (ax)^n + (by)^n the proof is done, easily, with what I have set up.

Question: Is this step needed? Can I just use the corollary to say that "by the corollary" since a and a^n have the same prime factorization and b and b^n have the same prime factorization, then we see a^n and b^n must be relatively prime?
Yes to the last question. I was wondering why this looks so complicated.
Can there be a prime number that divides both ##a^n## and ##b^n##, when a and b are relatively prime?
 
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Yes to the last question. I was wondering why this looks so complicated.

Since a and a^n and b and b^n have the same prime factorizations, and a,b are relatively prime, then a^n,b^n are relatively prime.

Can there be a prime number that divides both an" role="presentation" style="display: inline; line-height: normal; word-wrap: normal; white-space: nowrap; float: none; direction: ltr; max-width: none; max-height: none; min-width: 0px; min-height: 0px; border: 0px; padding: 0px; margin: 0px; position: relative;">anan and bn" role="presentation" style="display: inline; line-height: normal; word-wrap: normal; white-space: nowrap; float: none; direction: ltr; max-width: none; max-height: none; min-width: 0px; min-height: 0px; border: 0px; padding: 0px; margin: 0px; position: relative;">bnbn, when a and b are relatively prime?

No.
Since they are relatively prime, that means 1 = ax+bm and by this proof, 1 = a^n*x+b^n*m
 
RJLiberator said:
Since a and a^n and b and b^n have the same prime factorizations, and a,b are relatively prime, then a^n,b^n are relatively prime.
Correct.
RJLiberator said:
No.
Since they are relatively prime, that means 1 = ax+bm and by this proof, 1 = a^n*x+b^n*m
Hmm, A little sloppy.
The "x" and "m" in the RHS don't have to be the same as the "x" and "m" in the LHS.

Example: 5*2-3*3=1, but 5²*2-3²*3≠1. (But -5²*5+3²*14=1)
It doesn't matter, you already solved the exercise.
 
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