Relativity & Quantum Theory: Is Locality Violated?

  • Thread starter Thread starter UglyDuckling
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Relativity
Click For Summary
Modern physics is built on the principles of relativity and quantum theory, which currently appear to be in conflict, particularly regarding locality. Quantum mechanics suggests that entangled particles can influence each other instantaneously, seemingly violating the locality constraint imposed by relativity. However, standard quantum mechanics does not indicate that any physical signal or information travels faster than light between these particles. The discussions highlight that while quantum mechanics and relativity may not fully integrate, this does not necessarily imply a violation of relativity itself. The ongoing debate revolves around understanding the nature of entanglement and its implications for our interpretation of space-time and the foundations of physics.
  • #91
LnGrrrR said:
Yes, I can see your point from here. I also detest the idea of 'just worrying about the probabilities' for the same reason you do...it just seems like 'quitting'.

Now, you all certainly know much more than I (though I am slowly...ever so painfully learning), but I think I can see where you're coming from. Right now, MWI is certainly one of the, if not the most, 'valid' ideas, given what we know.

However, it almost seems to be a 'god of the gaps' idea (if you're not sure what this means, I'll let you know). Without having read up a great deal on Lorentz transformations or anything, it seems to me (again, more on a gut feeling than anything else) that QM right now seems to be where classic Newtonian physics was.

I agree with all that. In fact, the major challenge is not the interpretation of quantum theory, but the unification, the clash, or no matter how you call it, between quantum theory and general relativity. As long as the jury is out on that one, I'd say: hold your bets.
But does that mean that in the mean time, we shouldn't have a picture to work with ?

Newton did an amazing job describing how certain things function in our world, and for most things, it works great...however, Einstein of course improved upon Newton's mechanics and came up with a theory that not only covered what his could cover, but even more so.

I think that I'm 'holding out' for something like the Theory of Relativity to happen to QM...mayhaps you could say I'm looking for a 'hidden variable' of some sort. But I'm still holding out that we will discover a means that will rule out MWI.

Sure. And usually, the surprise comes from an unexpected side. It's not said that things become simpler. Maybe. Maybe not.

It bothers me enough to think that there are things where we just CAN NOT know (HUP)...but to think that there are other REALITIES we can't get to? Far too 'unfair'...it's like reading one book by an author and finding it immensely satisfying. Then having joy upon hearing he's written THOUSANDS of books...and despair to realize you can't read any other one but the one in your hands. :)

:smile:

I don't think I've done enough research to form an honest opinion about which 'interpretation' is best though.

It's like getting married, you know... :smile:
 
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #92
vanesch said:
Well, you can take that in different ways. If you only look upon the OUTCOMES, then clearly, the probability of what happened at Alice only depends of what is in this event's past lightcone: the probability to have a click or not, only depends on the source, and on her local setting. In most experiments, this probability is simply 50%.

This involves an equivocation. There are two different things that "probability" could mean here. The way you're using it above, you mean the relative frequency of a certain occurrence. The way I was using it before was to refer to the probabilities that some *particular theory* assigns to a given happening. You're right that there's no way to just look at Alice's data and determine whether Bell Locality is violated. This is because Bell Locality is primarily a locality requirement *for theories*. Any claims made about nature (based on experiment) have to be filtered through (so to speak) an argument about theories. This is why I'm always careful to say things like: "no Bell Local theory can be in agreement with the observations -- thus nature violates Bell Locality."


IT DOESN'T MAKE SENSE TO TALK ABOUT A CORRELATION at this point ! Now, the same can be said for Bob. So Bob has only events to his disposal, of which the probability to click or not, is only dependent on the source and on HIS setting. Alice's settings do not influence Bob's probability of seeing a click or not.

Meaning: Alice's settings do not influence the relative frequency of Bob seeing a click. That's true. It's basically equivalent to what's usually called "signal locality." The deeper question (that Bell asked) is: can a locally causal theory explain the outcomes? The answer turns out to be no (modulo your usual objection about MWI... o:) )


The only way to find a "strange" result is by comparing Alice's and Bob's observations. But this must happen at a LATER event, where Bob and Alice's measurement actions are in the past lightcone of this "comparing" event. It is only NOW, at THIS EVENT that it makes sense to talk about the probabilities of hits which were seen simultaneously, or in opposition (correlation or anti correlation). So, at the event where it makes sense to talk about the "probability of a correlated hit", both Alice's and Bob's measurement are in the past lightcone. And at Alice's place, it doesn't make sense to talk about Bob's probabilities and vice versa, because these results are not available to her.

But (like a good MWI-er :rolleyes: ) you're then denying that the measurements really have outcomes prior to Alice and Bob meeting up later! This is like my saying: there's no fact of the matter about whether some distant star has supernova'ed or not (in say the rest frame of the earth) because facts about that distant star only become "real" when the "information" about them gets to my eyes.

What happened to the *realism* I thought we agreed about??


In fact, to arrive at Bell's statement, you have to make AN EXTRA hypothesis: that is that Bob's and Alice's POTENTIAL outcomes are part of an overall common probability measure, no matter their actual settings.

This extra hypothesis would then allow you to create a (hidden or not) variable, distributed according to this overall common probability measure, and reproduce the correlations ; and that's what Bell proved, cannot happen and agree with QM predictions.

You can look at it this way, but I think it's clearer to say that the "extra hypothesis" you need is simply that Alice's and Bob's individual experiments really do have definite outcomes, independent of whether the two of them get together later for coffee and to compare notes. With this assumption alone, the EPR argument gets you (from the postulate of Bell Locality) the existence of local hidden variables which determine (in advance, so to speak) the outcomes on each side. And then Bell's Theorem demonstrates that this kind of model is at odds with experiment. So from two assumptions (that the experiments on each side actually have definite outcomes, and Bell Locality) you get a contradiction with experiment. So either (what I always say, because I'm unwilling to deny the actual outcomes) nature violates Bell Locality... or (what you always say, because you're in love with locality) we have to give up the idea that Alice's and Bob's individual experiments had definite outcomes.


Yes, for the nth time: MWI ! What MWI "violates" is the extra hypothesis of the existence of an overall common probability measure of POTENTIAL outcomes, because the only terms appearing in the overall wavefunction are those that got correlated with the ACTUAL measurement apparatus (and whose Hilbert norms hence give you the probabilities of observation at Alice, at Bob, and later, when they come together, for their correlations). But it respects the probabilities of all observable things at a certain event, to depend only on what happens in the past light cone. As such, the CORRELATIONS don't "exist" until Alice and Bob come together, and the "potential measurement outcomes" are not considered. In other words, there is no overall probability measure. And hence no Bell theorem.

Yes, I think we agree about all this. We just disagree about which of the two premises (locality, or actual outcomes) is more reasonable to give up.
 
  • #93
LnGrrrR said:
I don't think I've done enough research to form an honest opinion about which 'interpretation' is best though.

I thought I'd second my own earlier recommendation of David Albert's book, "Quantum Mechanics and Experience." It is far and away the best book out there if you want to really understand what the issues are and what the possible interpretations are all about. There are a few weird things in the book (speculations about how this or that interpretation might deal with a situation in which some crazy device is hooked up directly to some poor guy's brain, etc.) but for the most part the book is a 100% honest, and 100% clear presentation of the actual problems with the conventional view, and the various proposed ways of dealing with the problems (which means, basically: GRW type theories, MWI type theories, and Bohm type theories).
 
  • #94
DrChinese said:
As you vary Alice's setting, there is no change in Bob's outcome and vice versa. So where is the dependency? There is no prediction by oQM that there is any demonstrable or (non-local) physical connection between these. And there is no way to test Bob's particle alone and determine if it is a collapsed eigenstate or not. Only when you add more observables do you have anything to talk about.

Sigh. I've tried so many times to explain this, but we just never seem to get anywhere. Should I try again? Maybe one last time...

You have to allow that there's a difference between two things:

1. Alice can affect the relative frequency of some occurence near Bob by turning a knob (or something else she has direct control over). For example, the frequency of a certain outcome of a certain experiment near Bob has one value if Alice's knob is turned to the left, and has a different value if Alice's knob is turned to the right. In the simplest case, the frequencies are 1 or 0, so, say, when the knob is turned left, a light bulb near Bob lights up; when it's turned right, the bulb goes dim.

2. Some particular theory says that the fundamental dynamical probability of a certain event depends on happenings outside the backwards light cone of the event.

The first involves (evidently) a *controllable* causal mechanism. It allows Alice to send a *signal* to Bob. And note that we don't have to know anything about what theory is or isn't true in order to demonstrate the existence of something like 1. We just discover (say) that turning a certain knob over here, causes some regular correlated happening over there. It's a purely *empirical* statement.

The second, on the other hand, is a statement not about data from an experiment, but about a *theory*. If some theory works this way, we would say that this theory is nonlocal, right? We'd say that this theory violated relativity's prohibition on superluminal causation, right?

Are you with me so far? If so, I'll continue later... If not, no point going further.
 
  • #95
Help! Help! Help! Help! Help! Help! Help! Help! Help! Help! Help! Help! Help!

Will someone please put me out of my misery regarding “the locality loophole”? ttn says “I don’t know what I’m talking about”, I have tried to find a rational valid reason why he should make this allegation but so far it escapes me. So would someone please! please! tell me what I’m missing!

I will restate my reasoning so you can identify more easily where my logic is going wrong.

The assertion is; given experimental results that violate Bell’s inequality then “locality” can be recovered if we assume that certain events in the experimental procedure are, at quantum level, super-positioned.

For Aspect’s experiment these events are: -
1. The moment of the calcium atom decays.
2. The moments at the polarisers when by the conventional theory the “photons” would be passing through them.
3. Finally the moments at the detectors when they pick up a count.

The argument is the quantum systems at these events become super-positioned and act as a single entity. Communication between the components of the system becomes instantaneous and any changes in the quantum states of the component system can take place in accordance with the laws of conservation without special relativity being violated.

I’ve tried thinking of why ttn should so vehemently oppose this viewpoint and I’ve come up with the following possibilities.

1. The events in question are separated in space and time and therefore could not possibly be super-positioned in the manner proposed? The answer here is the events can all be connected by zero proper interval paths so mathematically there is no reason they should not be super-positioned.
2. Since the component quantum systems are super-positioned there is no requirement for a photon to mediate the electromagnetic force? As quantum mechanics does not provide an ontology this cannot be his grounds for objection. Super-positioning, for instance, as the mediator of electromagnetic force would have a neutral on the dynamics of QED.
3. The only other reason I’ve thought of is that the proposal is incompatible with his belief that super-luminal influences are an established fact and he may think it is inconsistent with Bohm’s interpretation of quantum mechanics. But I’m sure ttn would not let a fondness for a pet theory come in the way of rational debate. So that can’t be the answer!

So just what is it I’m missing about “the locality loophole” problem.

Again.help!
 
  • #96
vanesch said:
It's like getting married, you know... :smile:

Which is another issue I'm very undecided on...

I certainly see your point of "go with MWI now until we understand better otherwise". However, I think a part of me refuses to believe/acknowledge that idea as correct. Whether it's due to lack of information or just something about the way I'm configured, I have no clue. :)
 
  • #97
ttn said:
I thought I'd second my own earlier recommendation of David Albert's book, "Quantum Mechanics and Experience." It is far and away the best book out there if you want to really understand what the issues are and what the possible interpretations are all about. There are a few weird things in the book (speculations about how this or that interpretation might deal with a situation in which some crazy device is hooked up directly to some poor guy's brain, etc.) but for the most part the book is a 100% honest, and 100% clear presentation of the actual problems with the conventional view, and the various proposed ways of dealing with the problems (which means, basically: GRW type theories, MWI type theories, and Bohm type theories).

Thanks for the recommendation! The bookstores near me...well...there aren't any anymore. (Thanks Katrina!) Maybe next time I go to Mobile, AL, I'll take a look...or just rely on Amazon.com :)
 
  • #98
ttn said:
The first involves (evidently) a *controllable* causal mechanism. It allows Alice to send a *signal* to Bob. And note that we don't have to know anything about what theory is or isn't true in order to demonstrate the existence of something like 1. We just discover (say) that turning a certain knob over here, causes some regular correlated happening over there. It's a purely *empirical* statement.

The second, on the other hand, is a statement not about data from an experiment, but about a *theory*. If some theory works this way, we would say that this theory is nonlocal, right? We'd say that this theory violated relativity's prohibition on superluminal causation, right?

Are you with me so far? If so, I'll continue later... If not, no point going further.

I am with you so far... :smile:
 
  • #99
DrChinese said:
I am with you so far... :smile:

Spectacular. OK. So, a violation of "1" from the previous post is a violation of what's usually called "signal locality." A violation of "2" from the previous post is a violation of "Bell Locality." This is all just defining of terms, so nothing really to worry about.

By way of continuing, here are some important facts, in no particular order:

* All experiments to date suggest that Signal Locality is true. There is every reason to believe that "the one true theory" (whatever that is exactly) should be Signal Local.

* It is possible for a theory to violate Bell Locality (and, I think we agreed, therefore be at odds with relativity's prohibition on superluminal causation) but nevertheless *respect* Signal Locality. Here's a silly example: suppose there are these two boxes and whenever you and a friend look into the two boxes, you see balls that are the same color. We just take that as an empirical fact. Now suppose somebody proposes the following theory: when nobody's looking, the balls are grey; but then as soon as the first person (you or your friend) look into one of the boxes, the ball in the looked-in box flips a coin and turns itself either red or blue (at random) -- *and*, simultaneously, the distant ball turns itself the same color. Let's leave aside the question of whether there could possiblly be any good reason to believe such a theory (probably not). My point here is simply that this theory violates Bell Locality (since the color of the one ball is determined, according to this theory, by the space-like separated outcome of that random coin flip) -- but that, despite violating Bell Locality, the theory is consistent with Signal Locality (basically, because what one person sees when he opens his box is either a red/blue ball, seemingly at random, and there's no way to infer anything about what happened or didn't happen at the distant box from this). If this theory is right, there exist relativity-violating interactions, but it is impossible to *use* these interactions to communicate with your distant friend (i.e., you can't send a signal).


So... still with me? Do we agree that, in principle, a theory can violate Bell Locality (and hence not be consistent with relativity) yet still not support the sending of signals faster than light?
 
  • #100
ttn said:
So... still with me? Do we agree that, in principle, a theory can violate Bell Locality (and hence not be consistent with relativity) yet still not support the sending of signals faster than light?

I know that you want to talk to Dr C. and I don't want to interrupt your discussion. But I wanted to make something clear. We know that signal locality is a less severe requirement than Bell locality. However, we should not forget where this "locality" requirement comes from: it comes from the idea that spacetime has a geometrical Minkowski structure ; from this, it follows that the laws of nature should not depend on how we LABEL the events in Minkowski space - which results that ALL physically relevant expressions should be writable in Lorentz-invariant form. In fact, we need a second assumption: that in all these different ways of labeling the events in Minkowski space, the "t" coordinate represents somehow time for A thinkable observer, which should not be placed before the fact that something that can be set up to be influenced at t1 can determine the probabilities of something at t2, with t2 < t1, for this particular observer ; this, simply because of the obvious paradox that would result: the observer could set up a device that determines the relevant probabilities at t2, and then wait until t1 to change things such that what he observed at t2 would not be true.
This last idea comes from the fact - the observed fact - that we can obtain results at a certain ta and THEN take decisions based upon that result, at a tb > ta, but not vice versa. In other words, we seem to be able to influence the future, but not the past.
This, plus the geometrical structure of Minkowski space, makes us "require locality". But BEFORE it even makes sense to talk about such a locality, one must adhere to the *Minkowski* GEOMETRY of spacetime ; and this, in turn, means, that all physically relevant quantities that could ever appear in a theory, must be representations of the Lorentz group.

As such, it doesn't make, IMO, much sense to *even talk* about signal locality if the Minkowski geometry of spacetime is not respected. There is not the remotest motivation to even think about signal locality if the Minkowski geometry is not there. Of course, there can be a kind of "conspiration" for a theory, which doesn't respect the Minkowski geometry, to nevertheless manifest requirements that ONLY MADE SENSE for that geometry, but there's absolutely no fundamental reason for this to happen. It is a bit as if one discovered that, say, all international banc transfer amounts in the last 20 years, expressed in dollars, are prime numbers.
Of course this is possible. But there's no reason to it. In the same way, a theory that doesn't respect the Minkowski geometry of spacetime (is not expressible in a Lorentz-invariant way) has absolutely no "reason" to respect information locality. It's of course possible. But it would be a very weird thing, as with the banc tranfers being prime numbers.
 
  • #101
ttn said:
So... still with me? Do we agree that, in principle, a theory can violate Bell Locality (and hence not be consistent with relativity) yet still not support the sending of signals faster than light?

This is a question I'm certainly interested to hear the answer to from you folks, as it is one I have read about that seems counter-intuitive at first glance.
 
  • #102
vanesch said:
I know that you want to talk to Dr C. and I don't want to interrupt your discussion. But I wanted to make something clear. We know that signal locality is a less severe requirement than Bell locality. However, we should not forget where this "locality" requirement comes from: it comes from the idea that spacetime has a geometrical Minkowski structure ; from this, it follows that the laws of nature should not depend on how we LABEL the events in Minkowski space - which results that ALL physically relevant expressions should be writable in Lorentz-invariant form.

Patrick, very good and interesting post. This probably deserves its own thread... but I'll answer briefly here, and then participate if anyone wants to tear this off and give it its own thread.

Basically, I disagree about the hierarchical relation between "locality" and spacetime's Minkowski structure. You suggest that the only reason we *care* about requiring theories to be local is to enforce this underlying spacetime structure. If we knew directly from God that spacetime *did* have this structure, then I think you'd be right -- including being right about "signal locality" being a useless/irrelevant idea once you reject Bell Locality (which is much closer to the requirement you're after, that the dynamical laws respect the minkowski structure).

However, I do *not* think it's the case that God whispers this in our ear. That spacetime has a certain structure is an *inference* from more concrete experimental data, including such things as the measured invariance of the speed of light (e.g., the M-M experiment) and the failure of all attempts to send signals faster-than-light.

The point is, if we should someday encounter some empirical evidence that Bell Locality is violated (i.e., that it is impossible to formulate dynamical laws in a Lorentz invariant way) then we will simply have to accept that, despite the tons of evidence for this conclusion that was found up to this point, the conclusion turns out to have been premature and wrong -- Lorentz invariance is *not* the fundamental/final word in spacetime structure. ...which is, though surely *surprising*, not the end of the world (unless one has this crazy view that we know it is true a priori, from god).

This is basically nothing but our same old disagreement about whether or not locality is proved by experiment, whether or not MWI is a counterexample to my claims that nonlocality is proved by experiment. I take the outcomes of experiments ("naively" interpreted) as the rock-bottom givens. Theory, in my opinion, must always stand or fall with experimental data. So if (as I think) some experimental data is in conflict with the idea of Bell Locality (i.e., the fundamental principles of relativity theory) then it is so much the worse for locality/relativity. We must reject these ideas as wrong -- or at any rate non-universal. On the other hand, you seem to give this "untouchable rock-bottom" status to something very high up and abstract, namely the Lorentz invariance of dynamical laws. As I understand it your view is that this is sacred and untouchable, so if the experimental data "naively" appears to conflict with it, we need to find some way to reinterpret the experimental data so as to render it consistent with the sacred principle -- and hence is born this idea that, really, when Bob thinks his needle points left, he's deluded, and what's actually happening is that it's pointing both left and right at the same time for two different Bobs (or in two different universes or branches of the wf or whatever).

As a philosophical summary of all this, I'd say that I'm much more of an empiricist and you're much more of a rationalist. What's sacred to me is basic perceptual facts like Bob sees his needle go left; all the abstract stuff about Lorentz invariance and such is, if need be (i.e., if empirical data requires it), negotiable. What's sacred for you is the abstract principle, while all the nitty-gritty perceptual facts (Bob seeing the needle go left) are, if need be (i.e., if the principle requires it), negotiable.

And just to hint at what I think is wrong with your approach: as an empiricist (who doesn't believe we have *any* a priori knowledge, no revelations from God, etc.) I think that we only get to abstract principles by organization/interpretation of the closer-to-perception type data. So your whole approach strikes me as circular: you're willing to radically reinterpret something like Bob's perception of a hunk of aluminum in front of him, in order to "save" some abstract principle which (I would argue) we only believe in in the first place because we accepted as given such things as Bob's ability to correctly perceive bits of aluminum in front of him.


As such, it doesn't make, IMO, much sense to *even talk* about signal locality if the Minkowski geometry of spacetime is not respected.

I don't agree. Signal Locality is a summary of empirical facts. We know from experience that it isn't possible (by any mechanism studied so far) to send signals faster than light. It is not unreasonable to formulate this summary as a principle and hypothesize that it is general, i.e., to expect future theories to also respect it. But you're right that, without some kind of prior certainty about the underlying cause of signal locality (minkowski spacetime structure) we can't be *certain* of this extrapolation. And that is perhaps frustrating... but if one is an empiricist at least, that's just the way things are, the way science works.


There is not the remotest motivation to even think about signal locality if the Minkowski geometry is not there. Of course, there can be a kind of "conspiration" for a theory, which doesn't respect the Minkowski geometry, to nevertheless manifest requirements that ONLY MADE SENSE for that geometry, but there's absolutely no fundamental reason for this to happen.

I don't see how you could possibly know the latter. Minkowski geometry is one possible underlying cause for our in-practice inability to send signals FTL. But something like what you call a conspiracy is also a possible cause of this. The fact is, we just don't know for sure a priori. What the cause is of our inability to send signals FTL will have to be ultimately settled by experiment and (future) theories based on experiment. Your attitude seems to be that all the experiments prior to (say) 1950 constitute logically sufficient proof that spacetime has this minkowski geometry, and that this principle is therefore now untouchable, and that we therefore have to go to these ridiculous crazy MWI ideas in order to respect that principle. I completely disagree with that initial claim to certainty, though. It was known (or should have been known) all along that an "ether" type view was logically possible and consistent with all the empirical data (if inelegant). I'm not saying people should have believed in the ether, just that they shouldn't have foreclosed on it and claimed certainty about this so early. And, I think, that chicken is now coming home to roost, because the Bell/Aspect stuff (if you just accept all the experimental data at face value) proves that minkowski geometry is not the final word in spacetime structure.


It is a bit as if one discovered that, say, all international banc transfer amounts in the last 20 years, expressed in dollars, are prime numbers. Of course this is possible. But there's no reason to it.

Spoke like a true rationalist. =) If we *did* discover this, of *course* there'd be some reason, some cause, for it. It'd be too much of a coincidence to happen by coincidence. But just because no reason, no explanation, is apparent to us right now, doesn't mean we should just stipulate that it's impossible and then proceed to invent wild fantasies about how, really, when Joe Banker counts dollar bills, he is deluded into thinking there's 7 of them when really there's 10...


In the same way, a theory that doesn't respect the Minkowski geometry of spacetime (is not expressible in a Lorentz-invariant way) has absolutely no "reason" to respect information locality. It's of course possible. But it would be a very weird thing, as with the banc tranfers being prime numbers.

Bohmian Mechanics provides a nice counterexample of this claim. It violates Bell Locality (and the easiest way to formulate it is to have a preferred reference frame, contra Minkowski) and yet respects signal locality. Why? Because of the uncertainty in the initial locations of the particles -- uncertainty which turns out, as a *theorem* of Bohmian Mechanics, to be *absolute*. See

http://www.arxiv.org/abs/quant-ph/0308039
 
  • #103
Oh, one other quick comment: all this debate about "signal locality" is interesting, but really beside the point. Signal Locality in fact plays no role whatever in Bell's argument for nonlocality. I only raised it (w/ Dr C) because I have too often been burned by people listening to the argument, only to play the switcheroo game at the end and saying: OK, but really there's no nonlocality here because you can't send a signal with it. So I wanted to make absolutely sure we agreed, up front, that there are two in-principle distinguishable questions -- whether you can send a signal FTL, and whether a given theory respects relativity's prohibition on superluminal causation.

The claim I am at pains to demonstrate (and it is not original to me, it is Bell's claim, which has been widely misunderstood) is that no theory respecting that latter condition (no causally local theory, no Bell Local theory) can be in agreement with the empirical data. Not just no "hidden variable theory" that is local, not just any "deterministic" theory that is local, but no theory *at all* that is local. No causally local theory *at all* can be in agreement with experiment. This is what I am convinced (by Bell) is true. And this claim has nothing whatever to do with signal locality -- except that it is perhaps a bit of a surprise that a Bell Non-Local theory can nevertheless prohibit superluminal signalling.
 
  • #104
ttn said:
However, I do *not* think it's the case that God whispers this in our ear. That spacetime has a certain structure is an *inference* from more concrete experimental data, including such things as the measured invariance of the speed of light (e.g., the M-M experiment) and the failure of all attempts to send signals faster-than-light.

Of course. Let's say that taking on this structure for spacetime gives us then IMMEDIATELY the reason for:
1) the constancy of the speed of light,
2) the failure to send signals faster than light
3) the transformation properties in special relativity
4) the EXPLANATION of why ALL LAWS OF NATURE seem to be able to be expressed as Lorentz invariant quantities.
...

In other words, this is ONE SINGLE principle, from which a WHOLE LOT of consequences can be derived, and which ALL have been verified experimentally.
So, if some reasoning, which also makes OTHER hypotheses, leads us to conclude, that after all, this structure of spacetime cannot be true, it takes a really convincing argument that it is THIS point, and not all the other hypotheses, that need to fail.

The point is, if we should someday encounter some empirical evidence that Bell Locality is violated (i.e., that it is impossible to formulate dynamical laws in a Lorentz invariant way) then we will simply have to accept that, despite the tons of evidence for this conclusion that was found up to this point, the conclusion turns out to have been premature and wrong -- Lorentz invariance is *not* the fundamental/final word in spacetime structure.

This would be true if Bell locality were a direct consequence of the spacetime structure of Minkowski space. But there are extra hypotheses needed to do so, and the most evident OTHER hypothesis is the denial of that other great principle: the superposition principle.

This is basically nothing but our same old disagreement about whether or not locality is proved by experiment, whether or not MWI is a counterexample to my claims that nonlocality is proved by experiment. I take the outcomes of experiments ("naively" interpreted) as the rock-bottom givens. Theory, in my opinion, must always stand or fall with experimental data. So if (as I think) some experimental data is in conflict with the idea of Bell Locality (i.e., the fundamental principles of relativity theory) then it is so much the worse for locality/relativity. We must reject these ideas as wrong -- or at any rate non-universal. On the other hand, you seem to give this "untouchable rock-bottom" status to something very high up and abstract, namely the Lorentz invariance of dynamical laws. As I understand it your view is that this is sacred and untouchable, so if the experimental data "naively" appears to conflict with it, we need to find some way to reinterpret the experimental data so as to render it consistent with the sacred principle -- and hence is born this idea that, really, when Bob thinks his needle points left, he's deluded, and what's actually happening is that it's pointing both left and right at the same time for two different Bobs (or in two different universes or branches of the wf or whatever).

Yes. For TWO reasons, not only one. We already found one great principle, which is the Minkowski structure of spacetime, as being able to explain naturally points 1,2,3 and 4 in my little list above. These points include A LOT of empirical evidence, and none EXPLICITLY against it (that is, a DIRECT derivation of a result based upon the spacetime structure being a Minkowski space, in contradiction with experiment ; say, the wrong life times of muons or so, or clocks not behaving as computed).
But we discovered also ANOTHER great principle, which is the superposition principle, which ALSO explained a lot of empirical results. It gave rise to all of quantum mechanics, in its "bare bones" applications, from atomic spectral lines, solid state stuff, ...
Applying "naively" the superposition principle to "remote Bob and his needle" would imply that indeed, Bob exists in two states. But somehow we don't want to see that, so we state that this shouldn't be so.
So now we MAKE THE ASSUMPTION that 1) the superposition principle DOES NOT APPLY TO remote Bob and his needle, and 2) the Minkowski geometry of spacetime and we arrive at a contradiction with a prediction of a theory based upon the superposition principle - and some experimental support for it: namely the violation of Bell locality.
So it seems that if, at a certain point, you DO NOT ALLOW FOR THE SUPERPOSITION PRINCIPLE anymore, and you assume the superposition principle for microscopic systems, that you run into problems with Minkowski spacetime, both theoretically and experimentally.
Conclusion: Minkowski space is dead. Is it ? Or is it in the *assumption of the non-application of the superposition principle* that the error resides ?

It sounds a bit weird that we conclude about the non-validity of two principles, namely the superposition principle, and the Minkowski structure of spacetime, which were otherwise empirically very successful, simply because at a certain point we REFUSE to apply the superposition principle, no ?

As a philosophical summary of all this, I'd say that I'm much more of an empiricist and you're much more of a rationalist. What's sacred to me is basic perceptual facts like Bob sees his needle go left; all the abstract stuff about Lorentz invariance and such is, if need be (i.e., if empirical data requires it), negotiable. What's sacred for you is the abstract principle, while all the nitty-gritty perceptual facts (Bob seeing the needle go left) are, if need be (i.e., if the principle requires it), negotiable.

That's a bit carricatural. Every great principle is negociable, ON THE CONDITION that we have a better, more encompassing principle to replace it. One that has MORE explanatory power.

And just to hint at what I think is wrong with your approach: as an empiricist (who doesn't believe we have *any* a priori knowledge, no revelations from God, etc.) I think that we only get to abstract principles by organization/interpretation of the closer-to-perception type data. So your whole approach strikes me as circular: you're willing to radically reinterpret something like Bob's perception of a hunk of aluminum in front of him, in order to "save" some abstract principle which (I would argue) we only believe in in the first place because we accepted as given such things as Bob's ability to correctly perceive bits of aluminum in front of him.

This is often the case, that, when things are better understood, we realize that our perception of things were not what we thought it was, but nevertheless at a certain point we had to go by there to arrive where we are now.

You could say the same of, say, the "atomic hypothesis", which was regarded as a very hypothetical idea in the 19th century, but of which one had to recon, one could deduce quite some observed facts. One could argue a bit like you do here: in order to make the atomic hypothesis (which includes that objects are made of tiny little things, with lots of empty space in between them), we'd need to consider that we are "deluded" in thinking that we have massive objects of continuous matter around us, while these are essentially "empty" pieces of space, with some tiny tiny matter points in them. And the funny thing is, that to even MAKE the atomic hypothesis, we have to use instruments that are EXACTLY MADE OF MASSIVE, CONTINUOUS MATTER.
Now, it might be that using the atomic hypothesis, you might have an explanation of why atomic matter *looks and feels* like massive, continuous matter, but isn't it strange that in order to "save this abstract principle of atomic matter" one has to deny the existence of the continuous matter which we used in the first place to arrive at this "atomic matter". We used "continuous" electrical wires, "continuous" pieces of metal, ...

I don't agree. Signal Locality is a summary of empirical facts. We know from experience that it isn't possible (by any mechanism studied so far) to send signals faster than light. It is not unreasonable to formulate this summary as a principle and hypothesize that it is general, i.e., to expect future theories to also respect it. But you're right that, without some kind of prior certainty about the underlying cause of signal locality (minkowski spacetime structure) we can't be *certain* of this extrapolation. And that is perhaps frustrating... but if one is an empiricist at least, that's just the way things are, the way science works.

But the great advancements of science are exactly when one realizes that a general principle encompasses a lot of empirical facts.

I don't see how you could possibly know the latter. Minkowski geometry is one possible underlying cause for our in-practice inability to send signals FTL. But something like what you call a conspiracy is also a possible cause of this. The fact is, we just don't know for sure a priori.

Yes, but when you get a lot of "conspiracies" that can find their explanation in a principle otherwise, one should really consider that principle, no ?

What the cause is of our inability to send signals FTL will have to be ultimately settled by experiment and (future) theories based on experiment. Your attitude seems to be that all the experiments prior to (say) 1950 constitute logically sufficient proof that spacetime has this minkowski geometry, and that this principle is therefore now untouchable, and that we therefore have to go to these ridiculous crazy MWI ideas in order to respect that principle.

First of all, if one takes the attitude that one can never formulate a principle because one day it might be falsified, one isn't going to make much progress!
I'm not stating that the Minkowski structure is there once and for all (hey, we already know it is not the case thanks to general relativity!) I'm saying that NOTHING has ever been found that contradicted it. The only "contradiction" that is found, is when you are using another principle and violate it at the same time: the superposition principle.
Entanglement is a consequence of the superposition principle ; and saying that Bob CANNOT be in two states is denying this. Now from this double standard, you derive that Minkowski spacetime must come into troubles. My answer is: apply RIGOROUSLY the superposition principle, and apply RIGOROUSLY the Minkowski spacetime structure, and you don't have the problems you're talking about.

I completely disagree with that initial claim to certainty, though. It was known (or should have been known) all along that an "ether" type view was logically possible and consistent with all the empirical data (if inelegant). I'm not saying people should have believed in the ether, just that they shouldn't have foreclosed on it and claimed certainty about this so early. And, I think, that chicken is now coming home to roost, because the Bell/Aspect stuff (if you just accept all the experimental data at face value) proves that minkowski geometry is not the final word in spacetime structure.

So, spacetime is not Minkowski, but behaves in almost all respects AS IF it were. The superposition principle is not valid, but things behave AS IF it were valid on microscales. We know that if spacetime IS Minkowski, and the superposition principle IS valid, that there is no problem and that all empirical data can be explained too, but this goes against our intuition. Hmmm...

Bohmian Mechanics provides a nice counterexample of this claim. It violates Bell Locality (and the easiest way to formulate it is to have a preferred reference frame, contra Minkowski) and yet respects signal locality.

Bohmian mechanics also violates a priori signal locality. It is only when we equip it (with much difficulty!) with Lorentz-invariant dynamics apart from the quantum potential that it doesn't. In other words, Bohmian mechanics has NO EXPLANATION for signal locality ; it has to be put in there by hand.

So does unitary quantum theory BTW. But the difference is that unitary QM can be made COMPLETELY Lorentz invariant. As such, Minkowski spacetime can be considered, and serves then as an explanation for it. In other words, quantum theory can be considered over Minkowski spacetime. In Bohmian mechanics, as its formulation does not allow for Minkowski spacetime to exist, and there are explicit violations of this formulation to be Lorentz invariant. But SOME expressions must be Lorentz invariant while others aren't. And if you do the mix in the right way - with no good reason as of WHY - you can get out signal locality.
So this framework has much less explanatory power than the combination of Minkowski spacetime and the superposition principle.
 
  • #105
ttn said:
So... still with me? Do we agree that, in principle, a theory can violate Bell Locality (and hence not be consistent with relativity) yet still not support the sending of signals faster than light?

Yes, I guess I can see it conceptually. There could exist tachyon-like particles that do not otherwise interact with currently known particles except for their ability to synchronize chance events at space-like separated spaces. Were this the case, we would presumably need to extend/modify relativity to compensate.
 
  • #106
vanesch said:
In other words, this is ONE SINGLE principle, from which a WHOLE LOT of consequences can be derived, and which ALL have been verified experimentally.
So, if some reasoning, which also makes OTHER hypotheses, leads us to conclude, that after all, this structure of spacetime cannot be true, it takes a really convincing argument that it is THIS point, and not all the other hypotheses, that need to fail.

I agree. It takes a really convincing argument. But I think Bell gave such an argument.



Yes. For TWO reasons, not only one. We already found one great principle, which is the Minkowski structure of spacetime, as being able to explain naturally points 1,2,3 and 4 in my little list above. These points include A LOT of empirical evidence, and none EXPLICITLY against it (that is, a DIRECT derivation of a result based upon the spacetime structure being a Minkowski space, in contradiction with experiment ; say, the wrong life times of muons or so, or clocks not behaving as computed).
But we discovered also ANOTHER great principle, which is the superposition principle, which ALSO explained a lot of empirical results. It gave rise to all of quantum mechanics, in its "bare bones" applications, from atomic spectral lines, solid state stuff, ...

I don't agree at all that it's just "the superposition principle" which leads to an explanation for atomic spectral lines, solid state stuff, etc. Surely, at very least, you need the usual quantum measurement axioms (the collapse postulate, or some proto-version of it like Bohr's "quantum jumps" between stationary states). If you *just* take the superposition principle (and the unitary quantum dynamics) you get Schroedinger's cat paradox spiralling out of control in all directions -- *not* an explanation of why a certain atom emitted light at a certain frequency, but an absurd-looking claim that there's no definite fact of the matter about what the atom did or didn't do. You can only convert this into an explanation of spectral lines (etc) if you *completely* change the usual, ages-old scientific assumption that what you see is what you get.



Applying "naively" the superposition principle to "remote Bob and his needle" would imply that indeed, Bob exists in two states. But somehow we don't want to see that, so we state that this shouldn't be so.

It has nothing to do with "want". Or rather, the *reason* "we don't want to see that" (as a prediction of our theory) is that, in actual empirical fact, we *don't* see that! You make it sound like it's some kind of arbitrary, unsupportable, subjective whim that makes me want theory to conform itself to perceptual experience / data, rather than the other way round. Call it what you want; I call it *the fundamental axiom of science*.




So now we MAKE THE ASSUMPTION that 1) the superposition principle DOES NOT APPLY TO remote Bob and his needle, and 2) the Minkowski geometry of spacetime and we arrive at a contradiction with a prediction of a theory based upon the superposition principle - and some experimental support for it: namely the violation of Bell locality.
So it seems that if, at a certain point, you DO NOT ALLOW FOR THE SUPERPOSITION PRINCIPLE anymore, and you assume the superposition principle for microscopic systems, that you run into problems with Minkowski spacetime, both theoretically and experimentally.

I (and virtually everyone else, even the quantum founders that I have a very low esteem for!) *already* did not allow for the superposition principle. There's a *good empirical reason* why you need something like the collapse postulate -- not for super complex EPR type situations but for simple things like cats. The collapse postulate was introduced in the first place to make QM consistent with *experiment*. The idea of getting rid of the collapse in favor of unitary-only-dynamics is already, for me, off the table long before we get to any questions about nonlocality, etc.


It sounds a bit weird that we conclude about the non-validity of two principles, namely the superposition principle, and the Minkowski structure of spacetime, which were otherwise empirically very successful, simply because at a certain point we REFUSE to apply the superposition principle, no ?

If you put it that way it sounds weird, yes. But if you remember why people refused to apply the superposition principle all the time (universally) in the first place, there is nothing in the least surprising or weird here.



That's a bit carricatural. Every great principle is negociable, ON THE CONDITION that we have a better, more encompassing principle to replace it. One that has MORE explanatory power.

I strongly disagree with this. It's entirely possible to know that some theory is wrong, without knowing yet what better theory might replace it. This is part of what it means to be an empiricist. Somebody can propose something for which there is some good evidence -- even lots of good evidence -- and which is, say, the only currently-known way to explain a certain broad range of phenomena. But this is *not* sufficient to prove with absolute untouchable certainty that the theory is true. Sometimes new (surprising) data shows that the theory is wrong, and scientists have to go back to the drawing board. Psychologically this is of course difficult to accept. But physics isn't psychology. It's based on experimental data, not whatever-keeps-physicists-happy.



You could say the same of, say, the "atomic hypothesis", which was regarded as a very hypothetical idea in the 19th century, but of which one had to recon, one could deduce quite some observed facts. One could argue a bit like you do here: in order to make the atomic hypothesis (which includes that objects are made of tiny little things, with lots of empty space in between them), we'd need to consider that we are "deluded" in thinking that we have massive objects of continuous matter around us, while these are essentially "empty" pieces of space, with some tiny tiny matter points in them. And the funny thing is, that to even MAKE the atomic hypothesis, we have to use instruments that are EXACTLY MADE OF MASSIVE, CONTINUOUS MATTER.
Now, it might be that using the atomic hypothesis, you might have an explanation of why atomic matter *looks and feels* like massive, continuous matter, but isn't it strange that in order to "save this abstract principle of atomic matter" one has to deny the existence of the continuous matter which we used in the first place to arrive at this "atomic matter". We used "continuous" electrical wires, "continuous" pieces of metal, ...

This is not a parallel case at all. The atomic theory gives a detailed micro-picture of (stuff like) solid matter. It in *no way contradicts* what we observe with our eyes (unless your eyesight is about 10^10 more accurate than mine). Accepting the atomic theory does *not* mean believing that what you previously believed (about stuff like solid matter) was delusional.



But the great advancements of science are exactly when one realizes that a general principle encompasses a lot of empirical facts.

Sure, but even greater advancements happen when one discovers whether such general principles are true or false.



Yes, but when you get a lot of "conspiracies" that can find their explanation in a principle otherwise, one should really consider that principle, no ?

Sure. Unless it's CRAZY! :smile: Seriously, think about all the conspiracies *your* side would have us believe: it *looks* like there's only one world, like the cat is always either dead or alive, like the needle always points either left or right, etc., yet there is some weird conspiracy in the mind-matter relationship (which is where you put the Born rule) which just makes it "appear" this way to poor deluded souls; really, the world is entirely different, in literally every respect, from those appearances. I submit that this is the ULTIMATE CONSPIRACY, the exact equivalent of the "brain in vat" scenario that no empiricist/scientist should (or even can) take seriously.



First of all, if one takes the attitude that one can never formulate a principle because one day it might be falsified, one isn't going to make much progress!

One often makes progress by extrapolating something that might be general/universal simply to find out if it is -- e.g., P*V = const... is this a universal law, or will it break down at high pressures? Let's crank up the pressure and *look*. It's by such means that one eventually discovers the underlying causes of observed regularities, which is where the real progress in science lies.



Bohmian mechanics also violates a priori signal locality. It is only when we equip it (with much difficulty!) with Lorentz-invariant dynamics apart from the quantum potential that it doesn't. In other words, Bohmian mechanics has NO EXPLANATION for signal locality ; it has to be put in there by hand.

Huh? Bohmian Mechanics does not violate signal locality. (What do you mean by "a priori signal locality"?) It is just as signal-local as orthodox QM because it shares precisely the same empirical predictions as orthodox QM. I also don't understand the rest of what you said here. Bohmian mechanics does not have a Lorentz-invariant dynamics; if you equip it with one, you get some new theory which would be ruled out by EPR/Bell experiments. It's true that this new theory would also be signal local. But that's not interesting; all Bell Local theories will be signal local. The interesting point is the converse: not all signal local theories are Bell Local. That is, what's interesting is that the *original* non-loretnz-invariant-dynamics Bohm theory is *already* signal local.

I don't understand why you say BM has no explanation for signal locality. Yes, it does. The theory as a whole is the explanation, since signal locality is a consequence -- a prediction -- of the theory. (Of course this alone doesn't prove anything about the truth of the theory, since lots of other theories make the same prediction here; the virtue of Bohm's theory lies elsewhere, basically in its uniform treatment of all physical interactions, as contrasted with the orthodox view which postulates fundamental dynamical distinctions between subject and object, between measurement-interactions and normal-interactions, etc.)


So does unitary quantum theory BTW. But the difference is that unitary QM can be made COMPLETELY Lorentz invariant.

Sure, all sorts of crazy things can be made completely lorentz invariant. The problem is, "unitary quantum theory" is contradicted by every experiment that's ever been done (the Sch cat problem)... so the fact that it can be made lorentz invariant isn't quite enough to make me want to consider it as possibly-viable. :-p
 
  • #107
ttn said:
...and whether a given theory respects relativity's prohibition on superluminal causation.

That's the issue I have. What would qualify as superluminal causation? My definition is probably a lot different than yours. After all, what is causing what? Correlation is not the same as causation.
 
  • #108
DrChinese said:
Yes, I guess I can see it conceptually. There could exist tachyon-like particles that do not otherwise interact with currently known particles except for their ability to synchronize chance events at space-like separated spaces. Were this the case, we would presumably need to extend/modify relativity to compensate.

Yes, that's right. The basic idea is that in such a theory (non-Bell-Local, but signal local) the relativity-violating effects have to be "washed out" somehow or other -- "hidden" or maybe rendered uncontrollable by something like noise, or intrinsic dynamical randomness, or ineliminable ignorance about the precise states of things prior to measurements, or some such.

OK, so I gather we're on the same page about the general point: it's possible for a theory to violate Bell Locality, yet still be signal local.

As I said before, "signal locality" doesn't really play a role in my argument here. It's just important to make clear from the beginning that the claim I'm arguing for involves something *different* from signal locality (namely Bell Locality). The claim is going to be that no Bell Local theory (that is, no theory that is relativistically causal, no theory that respects relativity's prohibition on superluminal causation) can agree with experiment (even though there will be theories that *do* agree with experiment in which, for whatever reason, the necessary superluminal causation cannot be harnessed by humans to send signals). OK?

So maybe here I'll just outline what the structure of the argument is going to look like and make sure we're both on the same page about that before scrutinizing the parts in more detail.

The argument will have two parts, both involving the typical EPR/Bell setup where Alice and Bob make space-like separated measurements of spin components on the two members of a pair in a singlet spin state.

Part One: It is an empirical fact that whenever Alice and Bob measure along the same axis, their results are *perfectly (anti-) correlated*. We then ask: how must a Bell Local theory work if it is going to successfully predict this empirical fact? The answer turns out to be: its state descriptions must include variables which, in effect, pre-assign measurement outcomes for all spin components. Such variables are often called "local hidden variables" or some such.

Part Two: This part is the better-known part, Bell's Theorem. There is a straightforward mathematical proof that the kind of theory we arrived at in Part One (a "local hidden variables" theory, or whatever you want to call it) cannot make the empirically-correct predictions for the general case (where Alice and Bob don't necessarily measure along the same axis).

The conclusion of the two parts put together is then just the conclusion I keep alluding to: no Bell Local theory can be in agreement with experiment. (If the logic there is not clear, I'd be happy to elaborate... but I think it's pretty obvious. In Part One we infer X from Bell Locality and a certain sub-class of the empirical data; in Part Two we infer that X is inconsistent with some other class of empirical data. And the only assumption other than empirical data we can possibly blame for this is Bell Locality.)

As an aside, note that none of this makes any reference whatsoever to Orthodox QM or Bohm's Theory or any other specific theory. We start with no assumptions whatever about the kinds of theories we'll consider, except for insisting on relativisitic causality / Bell Locality. We then ask: of that universe of Bell Local theories, are there any that are consistent with *both classes* of empirical data? And the answer turns out to be no. Some people might think "well there's got to be something wrong with the argument since Orthodox QM is a counterexample" -- this is really beside the point, but it is not a counterexample. Orthodox QM violates Bell Locality. But I think it's better to put off talking about specific theories (possible counterexamples, etc.) until after the *general* argument is grasped.

So... I'll stop there for now and wait for the daily sign-off. =) Are we on the same page with everything still? At this point, I won't be exactly sure where to go next unless you help me by telling me which part of the argument I've laid out you're suspicious of. For example, you might be totally cool already with Part Two, and so there'll be no point wasting time going through that in detail. Anyway, let me know what part of this you'd like to scrutinize and I'll do my best to flesh out that part of the argument.
 
  • #109
ttn said:
If you *just* take the superposition principle (and the unitary quantum dynamics) you get Schroedinger's cat paradox spiralling out of control in all directions -- *not* an explanation of why a certain atom emitted light at a certain frequency, but an absurd-looking claim that there's no definite fact of the matter about what the atom did or didn't do. You can only convert this into an explanation of spectral lines (etc) if you *completely* change the usual, ages-old scientific assumption that what you see is what you get.

If you *just* take the superposition principle, and apply it ALL THE WAY, you get a multitude of classically-looking, mostly non-interacting systems. This has not been realized immediately, you need decoherence for that. It is as if the following happened: imagine you have a classical theory of the universe, with its phase space and flow, and a point representing its actual state. From that point, you need to derive all what you observe and experience, your memories, everything you know about. You're happy, the world is a point in a big phase space.
Now, imagine a theory that gives you exactly that: the correct phase space, and that point. I assume that you would now say that this theory describes perfectly the universe as you know it.
And, now, imagine, that that theory ALSO gives a second phase space, which is unconnected to this first one, with another point in it.
Is this theory OBVIOUSLY WRONG ? I don't think so. As long as you have the phase space you wanted, with the point you wanted, whatever is "extra" doesn't matter. Whether or not to consider it is a matter of economy. If this second phase space is introduced "by hand" there's certainly no reason to consider it ; but if it FOLLOWS from a more general mathematical formulation, there's no reason not to consider it.
As a silly example, the two phase spaces could be solutions in the same way the two blades of a hyperbola are solutions to a geometrical equation in R^3. In what way would you feel "deluded" if there where this second phase space ? You have your classical phase space, and your point, and your flow, and you were able to deduce all your memories and so on from this structure. So if a physical theory gives you this, then it is reasonable to expect that ANY physical theory which generates a similar structure, will give you a comparable point where there is a creature like you, with memories like you and all that. And if that theory also generates OTHER structures, doesn't really matter, does it ?

And this is what happens when you apply unitary dynamics to a large system: approximate structures arise which look very much like the flow in a phase space, for each individual decohered term. It is as if each individual term "autogenerated" approximately its own classical phase space with flow. So ONE unitary flow in a complicated enough hilbert space gives rise to several, approximate, classical dynamics, each in their approximate phase spaces, and a specific vector in hilbert space corresponds to several points in each of these classical phase spaces. If you pick out ONE of these phase spaces, you'd have a point there, and that point would then correspond to what you would classically have done, and deduced from that point that there was somebody like you, with memories like you, and which would be evolving rather classically.
And another such phase space would look very similar, but different in a few aspects.
What's wrong with this view, so far ?
Strictly unitary dynamics over a hilbert space has given rise to SEVERAL classical phase spaces with their flows (at least approximately).
If that were the ONLY thing that unitary dynamics did, we could just as well stick to just ONE phase space, with its "derived" flow on it.
But, sometimes, unitary dynamics does something else: from one phase space, two are generated. Two almost identical phase spaces, with points in almost identical situations. This is due to the approximate character of the generated classical theories.
For a creature represented by a "point in the classical phase space before the split", a classically incomprehensible thing would happen, and because of the split, it would - being a classical creature - appear afterwards in two copies in the two classically-like phase spaces that result from this.
Of course there's no way, purely from this description, to tell you what would be the SUBJECTIVE experience of this creature.
And this is where the Born rule, the collapse, and all that, comes in: It will be subjectively now corresponding to one of the two resulting approximately classical phase spaces, with a measure given by the Born rule.

So what do we have ? You say that all of our perceptions and so result from a point in a classical phase space (that's what you do as a Bohmian, or as a classical physicist). Ok. So a theory that gives you, to good approximation, such a phase space with point will correspond entirely to all of your perceptions, right ? If it also generates OTHER such spaces is, somehow, none of your business, right ? You're not being "deluded" if that's so, right ? All you need is *A* classical phase space plus point.
Fine, I tell you that that's what you get out of unitary dynamics.

Next, it sometimes happens that the so generated approximate classical phase space "dedoubles", "splits", whatever, and that there is only a minor difference between the two resulting phase spaces (the minor difference being an "outcome of experiment" which is different in both cases). Ok, the only question that remains now is: if you were subjectively "living" the phase space before split, which one are you going to live after the split ? And here, the answer is given by the Born rule, of the two terms in the wavefunction that are at the origin of the two newly generated approximately classical phase spaces + point.

you can see the wavefunction as a "generator of classical phase spaces + point" and the unitary flow over Hilbert space as a "generator of classical flows" over all of these phase spaces.
With the occasional split.
 
  • #110
vanesch said:
What's wrong with this view, so far ?

I don't have much to say here that I haven't said before, and I don't want this to eclipse entirely what might actually be some progress (gasp) with Dr C.

But, for the record, I don't accept the parallel between branches of the wf and different phase spaces. No, I wouldn't object to a theory merely on the grounds that it somehow predicted some extra phase space appendage that didn't correspond to (nor contradict) anything so far observed. (...though that would be very weird and I don't see how it could possibly happen.) But the reason for this is simple: a different phase space would mean a bunch of particles which are located off in some other part of the universe, or which are located in the regular universe but which don't interact with the matter we're used to. Their existence would be something *extra*, on top of the stuff I already knew about. For example, if I say I've got a box with 10 marbles in it, but it turns out there are also some sneutrinos flying through, that doesn't contradict what I said about the marbles; it supplements it, yes, but it in no way undermines it; it in no way forces me to say I was *deluded* about the real existence of the marbles.

Other branches/worlds/universes in MWI just don't work that way. Actually they *would* work that way if you took the misnomer title "many worlds" seriously, but *that* version of the theory just doesn't work (isn't even well defined). ...which is why you uphold the particular version of MWI you do uphold, in which there's only one universe, and a complete state of the matter in it is given by a big giant wave function obeying unitary dynamics always. But then you put in this "consciousness token" -- at random -- into one or another of the branches. So in this (btw, solipsist) theory, what you are aware of is merely the branch in which you happen to find yourself, so to speak. You experience a living cat, but the *truth* about the cat (according to the theory) is that it is *not* really living, but is really in a massively entangled state including both living and dead (and never existed and quantum tunneled just now into santa claus and...) components. Your belief about the way things are, is *false*. You are *deluded*.

We can argue all day about whether this is really a delusion, or what, but the fact is there is a crucial difference between having veridical awareness of some fact (but lacking omniscience) and having a belief which doesn't correspond to the way things really are. I accept your phase space hypothetical because it falls under the former; I can't accept MWI because it requires me to put *all* my knowledge in the latter category. And I'm just not able to accept "maybe *everything* I know is false."

Maybe here's the best reason not to bother arguing about this anymore: if you're right, I don't even exist (or I only exist as a mindless hulk), and in either case you'll never convince me. I'm sure that sounds like a joke, but I actually mean it quite seriously. If you are right about MWI, none of the rest of us exist as conscious beings -- we are just mindless hulks who can't actually think. So what can it possibly matter what we think? i.e., why should you bother trying to convince us of anything? You'd have an easier time (and equal odds of success) trying to convince your kitchen sink. =)
 
  • #111
ttn said:
Huh? Bohmian Mechanics does not violate signal locality. (What do you mean by "a priori signal locality"?) It is just as signal-local as orthodox QM because it shares precisely the same empirical predictions as orthodox QM. I also don't understand the rest of what you said here. Bohmian mechanics does not have a Lorentz-invariant dynamics; if you equip it with one, you get some new theory which would be ruled out by EPR/Bell experiments.

What I simply meant was that if the Hamiltonian doesn't imply Lorentz invariance and signal locality, then, Bohmian mechanics, as well as non-relativistic quantum mechanics, is NOT signal local. For instance, in NR QM, if you have a term 1/(r2 - r1) in the hamiltonian, you can use this to signal instantaneously (in Bohmian mechanics as well as in NR QM). That's no surprise because it is the quantum version of a classical theory that also wasn't signal local (Coulomb electrostatics).
You only obtain signal locality in quantum theory by going to a Lorentz invariant dynamics (such as in QFT).
And here comes the crux: we can UNDERSTAND this requirement for Lorentz invariance because of the Minkowski structure of spacetime - but if we do so, then ALL of the theory has to be Lorentz invariant.
In Bohmian mechanics, in order to save signal locality we have to do the same thing: we have to introduce a Lorentz invariant dynamics (which you can do). But this time, because a PART of the theory is not Lorentz invariant, Minkowski spacetime cannot be the explanation. So there's no explanation for the fact that we had to write the part, corresponding to the dynamics, in a Lorentz invariant form.



Sure, all sorts of crazy things can be made completely lorentz invariant. The problem is, "unitary quantum theory" is contradicted by every experiment that's ever been done (the Sch cat problem)

Again, the Schroedinger cat is NOT contradicted by experiment. Schroedinger didn't know about decoherence effects, and thought that his cat would end up in a weird state "half dead, half alive". But, when you look upon the quantum theory and the wavefunction as "generator of approximately classical theories" (which is what happens in unitary QM), then the only thing that the "Schroedinger cat" setup tells you, is that there are now, to good approximation, two classical phase spaces, one in which the point indicates "dead cat" and another in which the point indicates "live cat", and everything that goes with it. "You" also being an aspect of that point in phase space, in one phase space, there is something that looks like "you" which sees a dead cat, and in the other phase space, there's something like "you" which sees a live cat.

All experiments with cats so far do indicate that the predictions are VALIDATED: there's always a "you" who sees a live cat, or who sees a dead cat.

The only problem with this "multitude of classical phase spaces, points and flows" being generated by unitary quantum theory, is: which one do *I* observe subjectively ? And that's answered by the Born rule, which is a NEW ingredient into something that looks very classical otherwise.

I don't find that so crazy.
 
  • #112
DrChinese said:
That's the issue I have. What would qualify as superluminal causation? My definition is probably a lot different than yours. After all, what is causing what? Correlation is not the same as causation.


OK, a very good question. I'll just tell you what Bell wrote down as a mathematical condition he thought captured this.

First off, a theory must have some "state assignments". It must describe physical systems in some way. So, for OQM, we have wave functions only, for Bohm's theory we have wave functions plus particle positions, for classical physics we have particle positions and momenta, for electrodynamics we have electric and magnetic field configurations, etc.

Now here is Bell's "local causality criterion" (which I call Bell LOcality for short). The probability a theory assigns to a given event should be uniquely specified once a complete description of the physical state in the past light cone of the event is given. (What "uniquely specified" here means is that the probability, assigned by the theory to the event in question, won't change if you additionally specify some information that is not located in the past light cone.)

Example:

Suppose there's a charged particle sitting at the origin, and you want to know what it's going to do at time t. Well, suppose you specify the electric and magnetic field configuration inside a sphere of radius c*t surrounding the origin at t=0. According to the theory "Maxwellian Electrodynamics", this is a complete state description, and also according to that theory, once you specify this state description, the behavior of the charged particle is uniquely determined. Note in particular that if you were *also* to specify (say) the price of tea in china (which we assume is outside that sphere at t=0, i.e., spacelike separated) and ask "*now* what does the theory predict the particle will do?" you get *the same answer as before*. The theory's claims about what will happen do not change when that additional information is specified.

According to Bell (and I agree, it makes perfect sense) this is a way of defining what we mean by "locally causal." A theory which *violated* this -- a theory in which the probability assigned by the theory to some event *did* change when some spacelike separated info was given, even though a complete description of the state of the system in the past light cone has already been given -- could, I think obviously, be said to include a causal connection between these spacelike separated events.

So that's Bell Locality. If anyone wants to get this from the horse's mouth, Bell's article "La Nouvelle Cuisine" (reprinted in the 2nd edition of Speakable and Unspeakable, but not the 1st edition) is the best thing to read.

So... will you accept that Bell Locality is a prima facie reasonable way of defining what it means for a theory to respect relativity's prohibition on superluminal causation? Or more questions? Or maybe you already disagree with something?
 
  • #113
ttn said:
Other branches/worlds/universes in MWI just don't work that way. Actually they *would* work that way if you took the misnomer title "many worlds" seriously, but *that* version of the theory just doesn't work (isn't even well defined).

No, the problem with calling other branches "worlds" is that people then go "world counting" which runs in all sorts of problems.

...which is why you uphold the particular version of MWI you do uphold, in which there's only one universe, and a complete state of the matter in it is given by a big giant wave function obeying unitary dynamics always.

Yes, but what's the difference between this, and the GENERATED decohered terms which look like classical phase space evolutions ?

But then you put in this "consciousness token" -- at random -- into one or another of the branches. So in this (btw, solipsist) theory, what you are aware of is merely the branch in which you happen to find yourself, so to speak. You experience a living cat, but the *truth* about the cat (according to the theory) is that it is *not* really living, but is really in a massively entangled state including both living and dead (and never existed and quantum tunneled just now into santa claus and...) components.

It depends what you call "cat". If, from this massively entangled system, you deduce TWO classical phase spaces + flow, and you call "there's a cat living" a certain region in such a phase space, then, if the point in the phase space is in that region, then there's a cat living there. So "cat" is then a classical concept, and "a living cat" too. And our quantum system now generated two approximately classical systems, one in which the point is in the region "living cat" of his phase space, and the other in which the point is in the region "dead cat" of his phase space.

Your belief about the way things are, is *false*. You are *deluded*.

No, because your "belief" about your "classical things" is true, and your observations too, within the approximate classical phase space + flow you happen to live.

We can argue all day about whether this is really a delusion, or what, but the fact is there is a crucial difference between having veridical awareness of some fact (but lacking omniscience) and having a belief which doesn't correspond to the way things really are. I accept your phase space hypothetical because it falls under the former; I can't accept MWI because it requires me to put *all* my knowledge in the latter category.

But there's NO DIFFERENCE between both. If you see the wavefunction as a generator of approximately classical worlds, there's really no difference.

Maybe here's the best reason not to bother arguing about this anymore: if you're right, I don't even exist (or I only exist as a mindless hulk), and in either case you'll never convince me. I'm sure that sounds like a joke, but I actually mean it quite seriously. If you are right about MWI, none of the rest of us exist as conscious beings -- we are just mindless hulks who can't actually think.

I never said that MWI IMPLIES that others are mindless hulks. I argued at a certain point that in any case one cannot make any behavioural difference between a mindless hulk and a conscious being, so arguing about OTHER consciousnesses was to me, a waste of time and what counted only was what happened to ONE consciousness. But this is JUST AS WELL true in a classical world, or in Bohmian mechanics or in any other physical theory: if you have a strictly classical theory where you have a phase space and a point in there, what makes you make you experience the experiences you have, given that point in phase space ?
Now, this is the same with a branch in the WF. And given that through decoherence, what happens to a branch in the WF LOOKS A LOT like what happens to a point in phase space, I'd say that on the physics side, we're in almost identical situations.

So if you can live with your "approximate truth" about things in a classical phase space, I don't see what's suddenly so delusional if you understand that this classical phase space exists in an approximate form, AMONGST MANY OTHERS, in the unitary dynamics of quantum theory.
 
  • #114
vanesch said:
And here comes the crux: we can UNDERSTAND this requirement for Lorentz invariance because of the Minkowski structure of spacetime - but if we do so, then ALL of the theory has to be Lorentz invariant.
In Bohmian mechanics, in order to save signal locality we have to do the same thing: we have to introduce a Lorentz invariant dynamics (which you can do). But this time, because a PART of the theory is not Lorentz invariant, Minkowski spacetime cannot be the explanation. So there's no explanation for the fact that we had to write the part, corresponding to the dynamics, in a Lorentz invariant form.

Yup. What can I say, except: I too would be very worried about this if there were independent reason to believe in minkowski spacetime... rather than, as I think is actually the case, strong independent reason to *disbelieve* minkowski spacetime.





Again, the Schroedinger cat is NOT contradicted by experiment. Schroedinger didn't know about decoherence effects, and thought that his cat would end up in a weird state "half dead, half alive".

He was right about that. Decoherence doesn't change that conclusion. It only shows how hard it would be in practice to get those two branches of the wf to interfere again. But the cat is still both alive and dead.


But, when you look upon the quantum theory and the wavefunction as "generator of approximately classical theories" (which is what happens in unitary QM), then the only thing that the "Schroedinger cat" setup tells you, is that there are now, to good approximation, two classical phase spaces, one in which the point indicates "dead cat" and another in which the point indicates "live cat", and everything that goes with it. "You" also being an aspect of that point in phase space, in one phase space, there is something that looks like "you" which sees a dead cat, and in the other phase space, there's something like "you" which sees a live cat.

It *sounds* like you're suggesting that decoherence alone solves the measurement problem. That's not true, as I think you know. Decoherence has nothing to do with this -- what's really "solving" the problem for you here is your putting in a "consciousness token" according to the Born rule. (Decoherence merely makes this pseudo-well-defined by cleaning up the boundaries between the different possible branches.)

Also, in regard to your last sentence, I thought you thought that in the other "phase space" [sic], there *isn't* another "me". Maybe there's a mindless hulk that has the same shape as me, but it isn't conscious, right? So it doesn't "see a live cat" or anything else.


All experiments with cats so far do indicate that the predictions are VALIDATED: there's always a "you" who sees a live cat, or who sees a dead cat.

Sure, but your theory forces me to say that when I "see a live cat" (or whichever) it's a delusion. Ha! That makes you worse than those annoying people who think that Aspect et al made up their data and it's all a big conspiracy... :smile:


The only problem with this "multitude of classical phase spaces, points and flows" being generated by unitary quantum theory, is: which one do *I* observe subjectively ? And that's answered by the Born rule, which is a NEW ingredient into something that looks very classical otherwise.

I don't find that so crazy.

That just proves you're crazy. =)
 
  • #115
ttn said:
According to Bell (and I agree, it makes perfect sense) this is a way of defining what we mean by "locally causal." A theory which *violated* this -- a theory in which the probability assigned by the theory to some event *did* change when some spacelike separated info was given, even though a complete description of the state of the system in the past light cone has already been given -- could, I think obviously, be said to include a causal connection between these spacelike separated events.

Ok, silly counter example:

Imagine that I throw a dice at event E1. The probability for the dice to give "2" is equal to 1/6, say, when we take into account all we know in its past lightcone. But consider now event E2, a bit in the FUTURE lightcone of E1 where I look at the outcome of the dice which was thrown a bit before E1. The outcome is "4".
If I know this, then the probability of event E1 to give "2" is not 1/6 anymore, but "0". Nevertheless, this FUTURE event E2 didn't have any causal influence on E1, did it ? And I DID change the probability of outcome at E1 using this information from E2, which is outside of the PAST lightcone of E1.
 
  • #116
ttn said:
He was right about that. Decoherence doesn't change that conclusion. It only shows how hard it would be in practice to get those two branches of the wf to interfere again. But the cat is still both alive and dead.

But that's the whole point! The decoherence prohibits any "interaction between branches" (also called quantum interference), and from the moment you have that, you have an approximately classical system for each of the terms.

It *sounds* like you're suggesting that decoherence alone solves the measurement problem. That's not true, as I think you know. Decoherence has nothing to do with this -- what's really "solving" the problem for you here is your putting in a "consciousness token" according to the Born rule.

Yes, because the measurement problem addresses another issue: WHICH ONE of these emerging classical worlds will I perceive ?
It's like these stories about a photocopy of your body, and which one is "the original you" and so on.
THIS is something that is NOT answered by unitary dynamics, in the same way as it is not answered by the physics of the "body photocopying machine". My claim is that this issue is not part of physics per se anymore, but about the relationship with conscious perception.

(Decoherence merely makes this pseudo-well-defined by cleaning up the boundaries between the different possible branches.)

Yes, indeed.

Also, in regard to your last sentence, I thought you thought that in the other "phase space" [sic], there *isn't* another "me". Maybe there's a mindless hulk that has the same shape as me, but it isn't conscious, right?

I don't see why you should consider that those "other you's" aren't conscious. But I don't see why you should even consider the question: what do you care about *another* classical world where a similar construction as you is running around, whether it is conscious or not ?
No, the only thing is that you are the "original" you from before the split, and the other one is "the copy" - an assymetrical split which only makes sense from your subjective viewpoint, and which is completely symmetrical "from the outside".

Sure, but your theory forces me to say that when I "see a live cat" (or whichever) it's a delusion.

I don't see why you insist on saying that "what you see is a delusion". What you see is *classical* and you're aware of a *classical world*, and in that classical world THERE IS A LIVE CAT.
(there's also ANOTHER CLASSICAL WORLD, where ANOTHER YOU is seeing a dead cat, but it is a world that is now totally cut off from your world, so this is entirely equivalent as the "theory with two phase spaces" from the beginning, which you didn't object to).
 
  • #117
vanesch said:
But that's the whole point! The decoherence prohibits any "interaction between branches" (also called quantum interference), and from the moment you have that, you have an approximately classical system for each of the terms.

I'm not objecting to the "approximate classicalness" of "each term" -- I'm objecting to the fact that there are different terms (each of which represents something that is simultaneously happening to the same entities, and the different happenings are not consistent!).



No, the only thing is that you are the "original" you from before the split, and the other one is "the copy" - an assymetrical split which only makes sense from your subjective viewpoint, and which is completely symmetrical "from the outside".

I previously understood that in your version of MWI the "consciousness token" gets put in a branch according to the Born rule. So then there are empty (non-token-containing) branches, right? And the material copies of "you" in these other empty branches thus wouldn't be conscious, right?



I don't see why you insist on saying that "what you see is a delusion". What you see is *classical* and you're aware of a *classical world*, and in that classical world THERE IS A LIVE CAT.

But the *real* world is not much like that "classical world" you are aware of and which contains a live cat. Hence, delusion.
 
  • #118
ttn said:
I'm not objecting to the "approximate classicalness" of "each term" -- I'm objecting to the fact that there are different terms (each of which represents something that is simultaneously happening to the same entities, and the different happenings are not consistent!).

What I'm trying to point out is that there is maybe a subtlety in the concept of "the same entities". If an "entity" is "a state in a classical phase space", then these "same" entities are just "copies" if we have SEVERAL classical phase spaces. If "living cat" is a concept belonging to a classical phase space, then having generated two phase spaces means we now have two of these classical cats, one in each phase space. Of course, quantum-mechanically, it is "the same entity", but who says that what you intuitively call an entity (such as "living cat") is not a concept that only has meaning in a classical context ?
So - this was my point - if your theory GIVES RISE to several of these classical phase spaces, then you just have several of these entities around, and if ONE of these classical phase spaces corresponds to what you are classically used to, then that's good enough, no ? Whether or not they find their common origin in ANOTHER CONCEPT, which is a "quantum cat" is something else. As you've only seen CLASSICAL cats, you have no idea what is a quantum cat, and hence you cannot claim that it is silly to talk about "a quantum cat being live and dead": you only know about classical cats, and our theory gives us DIFFERENT classical cats, which are OR live OR dead. A quantum cat is then nothing else but a "generator of classical cats" in this respect.

I previously understood that in your version of MWI the "consciousness token" gets put in a branch according to the Born rule. So then there are empty (non-token-containing) branches, right? And the material copies of "you" in these other empty branches thus wouldn't be conscious, right?

This doesn't need to be the case: there was not THE consciousness token, there was MY consciousness token. Whether or not the others got "new ones", I left it out of the discussion, because it doesn't mean anything useful. If, in a classical world, I can already not find out whether another body is conscious or not (because behaviourally identical), why would I break my head over a COPY in a world that I cannot even behaviourally interact with ? Even classically, you have not to assume that "others" are conscious. One consciousness is enough to explain your subjective experiences, even purely classically. There's no need to assume that another consciousness exists apart from your own one - no matter whether we do quantum theory or classical theory. So I don't see the need to complicate the issue in the quantum context: I took the same viewpoint there.
If, however, classically, you assume that others are conscious "by analogy with yourself", well, you can do the same quantum-mechanically. Whatever behaves more or less "as if it is conscious" is then declared to be conscious. But this discussion doesn't matter, classically or quantum mechanically. The only thing that counts is what happens TO YOUR OWN conscious experience, if there are "copies" or "alternatives" - with WHICH ONE you are consciously associated ; because that WILL influence your subjective experiences. What eventually happens to others doesn't matter.

But the *real* world is not much like that "classical world" you are aware of and which contains a live cat. Hence, delusion.

Of course "delusion" in the sense that naive realism is not true, in that what we perceive with our senses is not ALL there is to the world. But not "delusion" in that there really IS a (part of) reality that corresponds to what you are aware of. That's not a big surprise, is it ?
You're bathing in a SEA of neutrinos and you've never seen them. There are more neutrinos around you than anything else but you're not seeing, feeling or hearing them. Are you deluded now ?
 
  • #119
vanesch said:
Ok, silly counter example:

Imagine that I throw a dice at event E1. The probability for the dice to give "2" is equal to 1/6, say, when we take into account all we know in its past lightcone. But consider now event E2, a bit in the FUTURE lightcone of E1 where I look at the outcome of the dice which was thrown a bit before E1. The outcome is "4".
If I know this, then the probability of event E1 to give "2" is not 1/6 anymore, but "0". Nevertheless, this FUTURE event E2 didn't have any causal influence on E1, did it ? And I DID change the probability of outcome at E1 using this information from E2, which is outside of the PAST lightcone of E1.

Good, I'm glad you raised this since I think it will allow me to clarify in an important way the definition of Bell Locality. No, I don't think this is a "counterexample." I think I must have used some phrase earlier like "outside the backwards light cone" that made you think the *forward* light cone was fair game for specifying this kind of additional information. But as your example makes clear, for any stochastic theory, conditionalizing on the causal effects of a given event will affect the probabilities assigned to those events. But this is all entirely beside the point, since the kind of information you're permitted to additionally specify (without changing the probability assigned to a given event, in a Bell Local theory) is information pertaining to a *space-like* separated event.

Here is Bell's statement: "A theory will be said to be locally causal [Bell Local] if the probabilities attached to values of local beables [i.e., whatever the theory is *about*, whatever it purports to provide a description of] in a space-time region 1 are unaltered by specification of values of local beables in a space-like separated region 2, when what happens in the backward light cone of 1 is already sufficiently specified, for example by a full specification of local beables in a space-time region 3 [that "fills" the backward light cone of 1 and shields 1 off from the backward light cone of 2]." This is from the article I mentioned before ("La Nouvelle Cuisine") and can be found on page 240 of the 2nd edition of Speakable & Unspeakable. You may also find the figures and some accompanying discussion in Section 2 of quant-ph/0601205.

I hope that clarifies.
 
  • #120
ttn said:
But this is all entirely beside the point, since the kind of information you're permitted to additionally specify (without changing the probability assigned to a given event, in a Bell Local theory) is information pertaining to a *space-like* separated event.

I know. But I wanted to illustrate, with a *SILLY* example, that "can influence the probability of something to happen" and "has a causal influence on" is NOT the same. The "naturalness" of Bell's statement comes from the tacit identification of both statements. We like to think that the only CAUSAL INFLUENCES on an event E "come from" its past light cone. And, if we are talked into accepting erroneously the identification of the above two statements, this translates into: "the PROBABILITY of something to happen at event E can only depend upon all we know in the past lightcone of this event." which is the essence of Bell's statement, of his definition of Bell locality. Of course Bell is thinking of "things happening at spacelike distance should not have a CAUSAL INFLUENCE on what's going on at event E" and he's translating this into "their knowledge should not alter the probability of what's happening at E". And of course he's aiming for spacelike distances.

But my silly example just wanted to show that KNOWLEDGE about something CAN alter probabilities of something to happen, without them influencing that something causally.
Indeed, although my KNOWLEDGE of the future event influences the probability of the current event (in a naive and trivial matter, even), you'll be hard-pressed to say that this FUTURE EVENT has a causal influence on the CURRENT event.

So it is not true, in general, that "knowledge about stuff alters the probability of outcomes at E" means that "stuff" has a causal influence on E.
And now we're home, because, IF IT ISN'T TRUE that KNOWLEDGE OF STUFF CHANGES PROBABILITIES OF EVENT E, then there is NO REASON to Bell's definition of locality. Indeed, if it is not in general true that the knowledge of some outcome means that there is a causal influence by this outcome onto my event, then (what we want) the requirement of only causal influences from the past lightcone does NOT imply that extra knowledge outside of this cone should not influence probabilities of my event at E.
 

Similar threads

Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
3K
Replies
2
Views
2K
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
3K
Replies
58
Views
4K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
3K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
2K
  • · Replies 37 ·
2
Replies
37
Views
6K
  • · Replies 93 ·
4
Replies
93
Views
7K