Renormalizability - how to determine if a theory is renormalizable?

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SUMMARY

This discussion centers on determining the renormalizability of a theory with multiple fields and a known Lagrangian. It is established that general theorems based on power counting can identify non-renormalizable theories, particularly noting that operators of dimension 5 and higher are automatically non-renormalizable. The discussion references Peskin and Schroeder as a key resource for understanding these concepts. A careful check is required for theories where all terms are of dimension 4 or less.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Lagrangian mechanics
  • Familiarity with quantum field theory concepts
  • Knowledge of power counting techniques
  • Basic grasp of operator dimensions in field theories
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the power counting method in quantum field theory
  • Review the relevant sections in "An Introduction to Quantum Field Theory" by Peskin and Schroeder
  • Explore the implications of operator dimensions in renormalization
  • Investigate specific examples of renormalizable and non-renormalizable theories
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Theoretical physicists, quantum field theorists, and students seeking to understand the criteria for renormalizability in complex field theories.

mhill
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Given a theory with n-different fields \phi _{n}(x) and a known Lagrangian L is possible to see at first sight if the theory will be renormalizable or non*-renormalizable ?? , or on the other hand should we calculate ALL the infinite diagramms to see it, for example i give a certain Lagrangian involving scalar particles, spin 1 particles and spin*-2 particles and several coupling constants could you say if this is renormalizable or not ?
 
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I doubt that it is simple to see, otherwise it wouldn't have warranted several Nobel Prizes in recognition of showing that various gauge theories are re-normalisable...
 
mhill said:
Given a theory with n-different fields \phi _{n}(x) and a known Lagrangian L is possible to see at first sight if the theory will be renormalizable or non*-renormalizable ?? , or on the other hand should we calculate ALL the infinite diagramms to see it, for example i give a certain Lagrangian involving scalar particles, spin 1 particles and spin*-2 particles and several coupling constants could you say if this is renormalizable or not ?

There are general theorems based on power counting which tell you which theories are NOT renormalizable. You end up with so few remaining that you can just go around testing them one by one, I believe. I think it is pretty well discussed in Peskin and Schroeder.
 
lbrits said:
There are general theorems based on power counting which tell you which theories are NOT renormalizable. You end up with so few remaining that you can just go around testing them one by one, I believe. I think it is pretty well discussed in Peskin and Schroeder.

As far as I know, the only rule of thumb is that operators of dimension 5 and higher are automatically non-renormalizable. Are there any other quick rule?



IF all the terms are of dimension 4 (or less) then a crafeul check must be made.
 

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