I'm studying renormalization and I have a question about part of a textbook. In P&S at the top of p.324 they show the divergent amplitudes of phi^4 theory, and they say that the two-point vertex (which has superficial degree of divergence D=2 according to the formula they derive) will have a term proportional to [itex]\Lambda^2[/itex] and also terms proportional to [itex]p^2\log\Lambda[/itex]. My question is, how do they know these terms just from D=2? That would seem to give the [itex]\Lambda^2[/itex] term, but how do they know there is no term proportional to, for example, [itex]p\Lambda[/itex]?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

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# Renormalization question in phi^4 theory

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