Fermat1 Messages 180 Reaction score 0 Thread starter Dec 15, 2013 #1 Am I right in thinking that if we have 3 sets A,B,C, then with A intersect B represented as AB, we have: A(B\C)=(AB)\C=B(A\C)?
Am I right in thinking that if we have 3 sets A,B,C, then with A intersect B represented as AB, we have: A(B\C)=(AB)\C=B(A\C)?
mathbalarka Messages 452 Reaction score 0 Dec 15, 2013 #2 Yes. This follows from the definition of set minus.
Evgeny.Makarov Gold Member MHB Messages 2,434 Reaction score 4 Dec 15, 2013 #3 All three sets equal $A\cap B\cap\bar{C}$ where $\bar{C}$ is the complement of $C$.