Sets: Proving Y^(XU{x})=(Y^X)x(Y^{x}) with Finite Sets and Singleton {x}

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the equation Y^(XU{x})=(Y^X)x(Y^{x}) for finite sets X and Y, where {x} is a singleton. Participants explore methods of demonstrating this relationship, including the use of bijections and counting arguments.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant seeks guidance on how to show the containment of one set within another to prove the equation.
  • Another participant clarifies that proving |Y^X|=|Y|^|X| is the goal and mentions attempting an inductive proof.
  • A suggestion is made to write down a bijection to demonstrate the relationship, implying that direct counting could suffice.
  • There is a discussion on the nature of counting as a rigorous proof method, with one participant asserting that counting is indeed rigorous.
  • Another participant expresses skepticism about counting being rigorous enough and insists on needing a more formal proof.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the adequacy of counting as a proof method, with some supporting it as rigorous while others seek a more formal approach. The discussion does not reach a consensus on the best method to prove the equation.

Contextual Notes

Participants have not resolved the assumptions or definitions related to the cardinality of sets and the nature of bijections in this context.

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how do i show that Y^(XU{x})=(Y^X)x(Y^{x}) where X and Y are finite sets, and {x} is a singleton.
obvisouly i need to show that one set is contained in another and vice versa, the problem is how to do so?
 
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for those who haven't undersatand, i need to prove |Y^X|=|Y|^|X|
i tried to prove it in induction on the exponent but i got to what i posted in the first post in this thread, can someone help me on this here?
 
Just write down a bijection, in the first post. Though the result you want to prove in the second post follows from counting the elements directly.
 
matt grime said:
Though the result you want to prove in the second post follows from counting the elements directly.
you mean because the set of all functions from X to Y, its cardinal equals the number of possible mappings from X to Y, which is |Y|^|X|, right?
still i think that i need a rigorous proof for this, and counting isn't as rigouros.
 
Of course counting is rigorous.
 

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