Show that if Σ((an)/(1+an)) converges,then Σan also converges

  • Context: MHB 
  • Thread starter Thread starter evinda
  • Start date Start date
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion establishes that the convergence of the series Σ(an) is equivalent to the convergence of the series Σ(an/(1+an)) for a sequence of positive numbers an. Utilizing the Comparison Test, it is shown that if Σ(an) converges, then Σ(an/(1+an)) also converges. Conversely, if Σ(an/(1+an)) converges, the Limit Comparison Test confirms that Σ(an) must also converge, given that an approaches zero as n increases. This relationship is critical for understanding series convergence in mathematical analysis.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of series convergence criteria
  • Familiarity with the Comparison Test in series
  • Knowledge of the Limit Comparison Test
  • Basic properties of sequences of positive numbers
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the Comparison Test in detail for series convergence
  • Learn about the Limit Comparison Test and its applications
  • Explore examples of series that converge and diverge
  • Investigate the implications of positive sequences in series analysis
USEFUL FOR

Mathematics students, educators, and anyone studying series convergence in real analysis will benefit from this discussion.

evinda
Gold Member
MHB
Messages
3,741
Reaction score
0
Hello! :)
I am given this exercise:
Let $a_{n}$ be a sequence of positive numbers.Show that the sequence $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} a_{n}$ converges if and only if the sequence $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{a_{n}}{1+a_{n}}$ converges.
That's what I have tried so far:
->We know that $\frac{a_{n}}{a_{n}+1}\leq a_{n}$ ,so from the Comparison Test,if the sequence $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} a_{n}$ converges,then the sequence $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{a_{n}}{1+a_{n}}$ also converges.
->If the sequence $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{a_{n}}{1+a_{n}}$ converges, $\frac{a_{n}}{a_{n}+1} \to 0$,so there is a $n_{0}$ such that $\frac{a_{n}}{1+a_{n}}<\frac{1}{2} \forall n \geq n_{0}$ ...But how can I continue? :confused:
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
I think you have some typos then, so you're watching $a_n+1$ instead of $a_{n+1}.$
Since $a_n>0$ (this fact is very important in order these things work), we have $\dfrac{{{a}_{n}}}{{{a}_{n}}+1}\le {{a}_{n}},$ so the converse implication is trivial.

As for the other, again, since $a_n>0,$ you can use the limit comparison test for $a_n$ and $\dfrac{a_n}{1+a_n}$ to conclude.
 
Krizalid said:
I think you have some typos then, so you're watching $a_n+1$ instead of $a_{n+1}.$
Since $a_n>0$ (this fact is very important in order these things work), we have $\dfrac{{{a}_{n}}}{{{a}_{n}}+1}\le {{a}_{n}},$ so the converse implication is trivial.

As for the other, again, since $a_n>0,$ you can use the limit comparison test for $a_n$ and $\dfrac{a_n}{1+a_n}$ to conclude.

How can I use the comparison test,to show that if the sequence $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{a_{n}}{1+a_{n}}$ converges,$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} a_{n}$ also converges?
 
Since $a_n/(1+a_n) \to 0$ there is an integer $N$ so that,
$$ \tfrac{a_n}{1 + a_n} < \tfrac{1}{2} \implies a_n < 1 \text{ for all }n\geq N$$
Thus,
$$ \tfrac{a_n}{1+1} < \tfrac{a_n}{1+a_n} \text{ for all}n\geq N$$
 
ThePerfectHacker said:
Since $a_n/(1+a_n) \to 0$ there is an integer $N$ so that,
$$ \tfrac{a_n}{1 + a_n} < \tfrac{1}{2} \implies a_n < 1 \text{ for all }n\geq N$$
Thus,
$$ \tfrac{a_n}{1+1} < \tfrac{a_n}{1+a_n} \text{ for all}n\geq N$$

Great..I undertand!Thank you! :)
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 13 ·
Replies
13
Views
2K
  • · Replies 16 ·
Replies
16
Views
4K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 17 ·
Replies
17
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K