Show that the function is not differentiable at the point z

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the differentiability of a bounded function \( g: \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R} \) at a point \( z \in \mathbb{R} \). Participants explore the implications of the function \( h(x) = \frac{g(x) - g(z)}{x - z} \) being unbounded, and how this relates to the differentiability of \( g \) at \( z \).

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant proposes that if \( g \) is differentiable at \( z \), then \( h \) must be bounded, leading to the conclusion that \( g \) is not differentiable if \( h \) is unbounded.
  • Another participant agrees with the initial reasoning, affirming that the argument is correct.
  • Subsequent posts question whether it is sufficient to show that \( h \) is bounded for \( |x - z| < \delta \) or if it is necessary to also demonstrate boundedness for \( |x - z| \geq \delta \).
  • A participant clarifies that if \( h \) is unbounded, it must be unbounded near \( z \), and provides reasoning regarding the boundedness of \( h \) outside the region \( |x - z| < \delta \>.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

There is some agreement on the correctness of the initial argument regarding differentiability. However, there remains uncertainty about the necessity of showing boundedness in both regions, leading to a lack of consensus on that aspect.

Contextual Notes

The discussion includes assumptions about the behavior of \( g \) and \( h \) near the point \( z \), and the implications of boundedness are not fully resolved. The necessity of demonstrating boundedness in both cases remains an open question.

mathmari
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Hi! Could you help me with the following?
Let g: R \rightarrow R a bounded function. There is a point z \epsilon R for which the function h: R \ \{z\} \rightarrow R, where h(x)=\frac{g(x)-g(z)}{x-z} is not bounded. Show that the function g is not differentiable at the point z.

My idea is the following:
Let the function g be differentiable at the point z, so lim_{x \rightarrow z}{ \frac{g(x)-g(z)}{x-z}}=L. So there is a ε>0: |\frac{g(x)-g(z)}{x-z}-L|&lt;ε.
|h(x)|=|h(x)-L+L| \leq |h(x)-L|+|L|=|\frac{g(x)-g(z)}{x-z}-L|+|L|&lt;ε+|L|.
So the function h is bounded. That cannot be true. So the function g is not differentiable at the point z.

Is my idea right??
 
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mathmari said:
Hi! Could you help me with the following?
Let g: R \rightarrow R a bounded function. There is a point z \epsilon R for which the function h: R \ \{z\} \rightarrow R, where h(x)=\frac{g(x)-g(z)}{x-z} is not bounded. Show that the function g is not differentiable at the point z.

My idea is the following:
Let the function g be differentiable at the point z, so lim_{x \rightarrow z}{ \frac{g(x)-g(z)}{x-z}}=L. So there is a ε>0: |\frac{g(x)-g(z)}{x-z}-L|&lt;ε.
|h(x)|=|h(x)-L+L| \leq |h(x)-L|+|L|=|\frac{g(x)-g(z)}{x-z}-L|+|L|&lt;ε+|L|.
So the function h is bounded. That cannot be true. So the function g is not differentiable at the point z.

Is my idea right??
Absolutely correct! (Sun)
 
Great! (Clapping)
 
Now I'm looking again the exercise..
There is a $ε>0$ such that $|\frac{g(x)-g(z)}{x-z}-L|<ε$ for $|x-z|<δ$, right? So $h$ is bounded for $x$ such that $|x-z|<δ$.
Do I have to show also that $h$ is bounded for $x$ such that $|x-z|>δ$, or is the above enough?
 
mathmari said:
Now I'm looking again the exercise..
There is a $ε>0$ such that $|\frac{g(x)-g(z)}{x-z}-L|<ε$ for $|x-z|<δ$, right? So $h$ is bounded for $x$ such that $|x-z|<δ$.
Do I have to show also that $h$ is bounded for $x$ such that $|x-z|>δ$, or is the above enough?
Yes, you need to show that if $h$ is unbounded, then it must be unbounded near $z$, not anywhere else. But if $|x-z|\geqslant \delta$ then $\left|\dfrac1{x-z}\right|$ is bounded by $1/\delta$. Also, you know that $g$ is bounded. So it follows that $h$ must indeed be bounded outside the region $|x-z|< \delta$.
 
Opalg said:
Yes, you need to show that if $h$ is unbounded, then it must be unbounded near $z$, not anywhere else. But if $|x-z|\geqslant \delta$ then $\left|\dfrac1{x-z}\right|$ is bounded by $1/\delta$. Also, you know that $g$ is bounded. So it follows that $h$ must indeed be bounded outside the region $|x-z|< \delta$.

So do I have to show both cases $ |x-z|< \delta$ and $ |x-z|\geq \delta$ ??
 

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