Showing Integral form satisfies the Airy function

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around demonstrating that the integral form of the Airy function satisfies the Airy Differential Equation, specifically focusing on the mathematical steps involved in differentiating the integral representation and substituting it back into the equation.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant, Thrillhouse, seeks guidance on how to show that the integral form of the Airy function satisfies the Airy Differential Equation and mentions difficulties encountered when differentiating the integral with respect to x.
  • Another participant assumes the interchangeability of integration and differentiation and derives an expression for y'' - xy, questioning why the right-hand side is identically zero.
  • A third participant suggests a change of variables to simplify the integral, noting that the resulting expression does not converge to zero.
  • A fourth participant argues that the positive and negative components of the cosine function should cancel out when integrated, implying a potential resolution to the previous concerns.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on whether the right-hand side of the equation can be shown to be zero, indicating that the discussion remains unresolved with multiple competing perspectives.

Contextual Notes

There are assumptions regarding the interchangeability of differentiation and integration that have not been fully justified, and the convergence of the integral remains a point of contention.

thrillhouse86
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Hey All,

Can someone please give me the gist of how to show that the integral form of the Airy function for real inputs:
[tex] Ai(x) = \frac{1}{\pi} \int_0^\infty \cos\left(\tfrac13t^3 + xt\right)\, dt,[/tex]

satisfies the Airy Differential Equation: y'' - xy = 0

I tried differentiating twice wrt to the x variable (assuming I could just bring it inside the integration) and then subbing back into the ODE but that failed.

Regards,
Thrillhouse
 
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Assume that
[tex]y = \frac{1}{\pi} \int_0^\infty \cos\left(\tfrac13t^3 + xt\right)\, dt,[/tex]

and the operations integrate and differentiate can be interchange (??), I obtain

[tex]y''-xy = -\frac{1}{\pi} \int_0^\infty (t^2+x)\cos\left(\tfrac13t^3 + xt\right)\, dt[/tex]

Why is RHS identically zero ? :cry:
 
Last edited:
make a change of variables:

[tex]u=\frac{1}{3}t^{3}+xt => du=(t^{2}+x)dt[/tex]

you will simply have:

[tex]-\frac{1}{\pi}\int^{\infty}_{0}cos(u)du[/tex]

that technically doesn't converge to zero. So that's the most far you can get
 
surely the positive and negative components of the cos function will add up to zero when you integrate ?
 

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