Analytic continuation of Airy function

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jostpuur
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For [itex]x\in\mathbb{R}[/itex] we can set

[tex] \textrm{Ai}(x) = \frac{1}{2\pi} \int\limits_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{i\big(\frac{t^3}{3} + tx\big)}dt[/tex]

If we substitute in place of [itex]x[/itex] a complex parameter [itex]z[/itex] with [itex]\textrm{Im}(z)>0[/itex], the integral will converge on [itex][0,\infty[[/itex], but diverge on [itex]]-\infty,0][/itex]. With [itex]\textrm{Im}(z)<0[/itex] the integral will converge on [itex]]-\infty,0][/itex], but diverge on [itex][0,\infty[[/itex]. The Wikipedia page tells me that a complex analytic version of the Airy function exists, but apparently it cannot be defined simply by substituting a complex variable [itex]z[/itex] into the same integral formula that works for real variables [itex]x[/itex]. How is the analytic continuation of Airy function studied then?
 
I realized that the complex Airy function can be defined by setting

[tex] \textrm{Ai}(z) = \frac{\sqrt{3}-i}{4\pi}\int\limits_{-\infty}^0 e^{\frac{t^3}{3} + \big(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{i\sqrt{3}}{2}\big)zt}dt + \frac{\sqrt{3}+i}{4\pi}\int\limits_0^{\infty} e^{-\frac{t^3}{3}+ \big(-\frac{1}{2}+\frac{i\sqrt{3}}{2}\big)zt}dt[/tex]

The idea has been that we try to define the function by a formula

[tex] \textrm{Ai}(z) = \frac{1}{2\pi}\int e^{i\big(\frac{\zeta^3}{3}+z\zeta\big)}d\zeta[/tex]

but modify the original integration path [itex]]-\infty,\infty[[/itex] so that the convergence is improved.
 
jostpuur said:
How is the analytic continuation of Airy function studied then?
Consider
##g(z)=\frac{1}{2\pi i}\int_{-i\infty}^{i\infty} e^{t^3/3-zt}dt##

where the path is along the imaginary axis.

Can you show this integral function reduces to the airy function when z is real (let t=iy)? Now, if ##g(z)## converges for some range of complex ##z## and it reduces to the Airy function for real z, then isn't ##g(z)## the analytic continuation of the airy function?
 
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jackmell said:
Now, if ##g(z)## converges for some range of complex ##z## and it reduces to the Airy function for real z, then isn't ##g(z)## the analytic continuation of the airy function?

That integral converges if [itex]\textrm{Im}(z)=0[/itex], and diverges if [itex]\textrm{Im}(z)\neq 0[/itex], so it isn't giving an analytic continuation to anywhere.
 
jostpuur said:
That integral converges if [itex]\textrm{Im}(z)=0[/itex], and diverges if [itex]\textrm{Im}(z)\neq 0[/itex], so it isn't giving an analytic continuation to anywhere.

Ok sorry. I see that now. I don't wish to make it worst and I probably should just stay out of it now but I like Complex Analysis so let me suggest another option and then I'll leave it to others to help you: Wolfram offers another contour integral:

##Ai(z)=\frac{1}{2\pi i}\mathop{\int}\limits_{\infty e^{-\pi i/3}}^{\infty e^{\pi i/3}} e^{t^3/3-zt} dt##

I assume they mean the pie-slice, from -pi/3 to pi/3, a closed-contour, then let ##t=re^{\pm \pi i/3}## along the straight-line contours and probably we can show the integral along the circular part goes to zero as r goes to infinity but not sure. Then use the Residue Theorem. And it looks a bit tough to show that converges for a range of z and then will reduce to the airy function for real z but it looks encouraging though.

Here's the link to the Wolfram functions:

http://functions.wolfram.com/Bessel-TypeFunctions/AiryAi/07/02/0001/