Simple question relating diffeomorphisms and homeomorphisms.

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Pinu7
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Consider a Euclidean space or a manifold or whatever. Furthermore, consider two regions on this space. If one can construct a diffeomorphism between the points from one region to the other, does this imply that the two regions are homeomorphic?

My gut feeling is "yes," but I would like a confirmation with maybe an explanation.
 
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Every diffeomorphism is in particular a homeomorphism, yes.
 
though clearly not the converse. To have a diffeomorphism you need some sort of differentiable structure which an arbitrary topological space does not have.
 
mathwonk said:
if i have ham and eggs, does that mean i have eggs? i.e. you could only ask this question if you do not know what the words in it mean.
Ha, nice answer :)