Sin(npi/2) non-convergence to 0

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The discussion centers on proving that the sequence sin(nπ/2) does not converge to 0. Participants demonstrate that while sin(nπ/2) alternates between 0, 1, and -1, establishing non-convergence to 0 requires using the non-existence of limit definition with epsilon. One participant suggests defining the sequence as (-1)^n for odd n to show non-convergence to ±1, while questioning how to represent the sequence's behavior towards 0. The conversation emphasizes the need for a general term equivalent to (-1)^n for demonstrating non-convergence to 0.

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peripatein
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Hello,

I'd like to show that sin(npi/2) does not converge. I have managed to show that it does not converge to +-1, but how may I also prove that it does not converge to 0?
 
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sin(0*pi/2)=0, sin(1*pi/2)=1, sin(2*pi/2)=0, sin(3*pi/2)=(-1), sin(4*pi/2)=0. Now just kind of extrapolate.
 
I have to demonstrate it using the non-existence of limit definition. Hence, using epsilon etc.
 
peripatein said:
I have to demonstrate it using the non-existence of limit definition. Hence, using epsilon etc.

How did you show it doesn't converge to +/-1? Why is it harder to show it doesn't converge to 0?
 
peripatein said:
I have to demonstrate it using the non-existence of limit definition. Hence, using epsilon etc.

Sure. But what Dick is suggesting is that you actually calculate \sin(n\pi /2) and to describe the sequence without sines. This makes it way easier to prove that a limit does not exist.
 
In order to prove that it does not converge to +-1, I simply defined it as (-1)^n and then showed that for any even n (or odd n, in the case of limit being +1) |(-1)^n - 1| >= epsilon (taking epsilon=1).
But what would be the general term, the equivalent of (-1)^n, for 0? I mean, I'd still have to prove that the sequence does not converge to 0 in order for my proof to be complete.
 
peripatein said:
In order to prove that it does not converge to +-1, I simply defined it as (-1)^n and then showed that for any even n (or odd n, in the case of limit being +1) |(-1)^n - 1| >= epsilon (taking epsilon=1).
But what would be the general term, the equivalent of (-1)^n, for 0? I mean, I'd still have to prove that the sequence does not converge to 0 in order for my proof to be complete.

Now why would you 'define' sin(pi*n/2) to be (-1)^n when it isn't true? That would seem like a losing strategy for proving something?
 
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It is true and is equal to (-1)^n for all odd positions, i.e. n=2k+1.
 
peripatein said:
It is true and is equal to (-1)^n for all odd positions, i.e. n=2k+1.

I'd write that as (-1)^k but alright. Your sequence is 0 for even n. It's also true |(-1)^k-0|>=1. Can't you use the same argument? There's no rule against comparing even terms with odd terms.
 

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