Solution to Trigonometric System

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around finding all real values of \(x, y, z\) within the interval \([0, \frac{\pi}{2}]\) that satisfy a given system of trigonometric equations involving sine and cosine functions.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Technical explanation, Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant presents a system of equations involving sine and cosine, seeking solutions for \(x, y, z\).
  • Another participant acknowledges a previous approach as better but notes that it overlooked certain aspects.
  • A third participant compliments the previous contributor for their effort while suggesting that additional solutions may exist.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the completeness of the solutions presented, indicating that multiple competing perspectives exist regarding the solutions to the system.

Contextual Notes

Some assumptions regarding the trigonometric identities and the range of the variables may not be fully explored, and there may be unresolved mathematical steps in the proposed solutions.

anemone
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Find all reals $$x,\,y,\,z \in \left[0,\,\frac{\pi}{2}\right]$$ that satisfying the system below:

$\sin x \cos y=\sin z\\\cos x \sin y=\cos z$
 
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I can find only one solution:

Taking a square and summing up will get

$$\begin{align*}\sin^2 z + \cos^2 z = 1 &= \sin^2x\cos^2y + \cos^2x\sin^2y \\
& = \sin^2x + \sin^2y \left( \cos^2x - \sin^2x \right) \qquad \Rightarrow \end{align*} $$

$$\sin^2y = \frac{\cos^2x}{\cos^2x - \sin^2x} \ge 1.$$

Equality takes place when $$x = 0$$ and thus $$y = \frac{\pi}{2}$$ and $$z = 0$$ is the only solution.
 
We have $(\sin x \cos y)^2+(\cos x \sin y)^2 =1$\
$(\sin x \cos y)^2 <= (\sin x)^2$ and $(\sin x \cos y)^2 <= (\cos y)^2$
so on we must have
either$(\sin x \cos y) = (\sin x)$ and $(\cos x \sin y) = \cos x$ $=>\sin x = 0,\sin y = 1$ or $\cos y = 1,\cos x=0$
This gives
1) $\sin x = 0,\sin y = 1$ => $x=0, y = \frac{\pi}{2}, z= 0$
2) $\cos x = 0,\cos y = 1$ => $x=z = \frac{\pi}{2}, y= 0$

Or $(\sin x \cos y) = (\cos y )$ and $(\cos x \sin y) = \sin y$ $=>\cos x = 1,\cos y = 0$ or $\sin y = 1,\cos x=1$
THis does not gives any additional solutions
so the solution set is
3)$x=0, y = \frac{\pi}{2}, z= 0$ or $x=z = \frac{\pi}{2}, y= 0$

- - - Updated - - -

Theia said:
I can find only one solution:

Taking a square and summing up will get

$$\begin{align*}\sin^2 z + \cos^2 z = 1 &= \sin^2x\cos^2y + \cos^2x\sin^2y \\
& = \sin^2x + \sin^2y \left( \cos^2x - \sin^2x \right) \qquad \Rightarrow \end{align*} $$

$$\sin^2y = \frac{\cos^2x}{\cos^2x - \sin^2x} \ge 1.$$

Equality takes place when $$x = 0$$ and thus $$y = \frac{\pi}{2}$$ and $$z = 0$$ is the only solution.
Hello Theia;
your approach is better than my approach but unfortunately you overlooked
$\sin \,y = \cos\, x = 0$
 
Hi Theia!

Albeit you missed out another pair of solution, you still deserve a pat on the back for the job well done...and thanks for participating!

My solution:

Adding up the two equations gives:

$\sin z+\cos z=\sin x \cos y+\cos x \sin y$

Now, by applying the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality to the RHS of equation above yields:

$\sin z+\cos z=\sin x \cos y+\cos x \sin y\le \sqrt{\sin^2 x+\cos^2 x} \sqrt{\sin^2 y+\cos^2 y}=1$

$\left(\sin z+\cos z\right)^2\le 1^2$

$\sin^2 z+\cos^2 z+2\sin z \cos z\le 1^2$

$\sin z \cos z\le 0$ (*)

But since we're told $$x,\,y,\,z \in \left[0,\,\frac{\pi}{2}\right]$$, the inequality (*) holds iff $\sin z=0$ or $\cos z=0$, which lead to two set of solutions where:

$$\left(x,\,y,\,z\right)=\left(0,\,\frac{\pi}{2},\,0\right),\,\left(\frac{\pi}{2},\,0,\,\frac{\pi}{2}\right)$$
 

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