Can Complex Inequalities Determine Optimal Critical Regions in Statistics?

  • Thread starter Thread starter GabrielN00
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Inequality Strange
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on determining the optimal critical region for hypothesis testing using complex inequalities related to the Poisson distribution. The key equations involve the sums of the form ##\sum_{k=1}^{c} n^k \lambda^k \frac{e^{-n\lambda}}{k!} \leq \alpha## and ##1 - \sum_{k=1}^{c} n^k \lambda^k \frac{e^{-n\lambda}}{k!} \geq \alpha##. The participants clarify the correct formulation of these inequalities and explore the implications of the Neyman-Pearson theorem in finding the critical value ##c##. The conversation emphasizes the need for numerical methods, such as those provided by Maple or Mathematica, to solve the resulting inequalities.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Poisson distribution and its properties
  • Familiarity with hypothesis testing concepts, particularly the Neyman-Pearson theorem
  • Knowledge of cumulative distribution functions and their applications
  • Proficiency in using numerical computation tools like Maple or Mathematica
NEXT STEPS
  • Explore the properties of the Poisson distribution and its cumulative distribution function
  • Study the Neyman-Pearson theorem in detail to understand its applications in hypothesis testing
  • Learn how to use Maple or Mathematica for solving inequalities and statistical problems
  • Investigate alternative statistical methods for determining critical regions in hypothesis testing
USEFUL FOR

Statisticians, data analysts, and researchers involved in hypothesis testing and statistical inference, particularly those working with Poisson distributions and critical region determination.

GabrielN00

Homework Statement


Solving an exercise I found myself with this problem: the solution ##c## needs to verify both ##\sum_{k=1}^c n\lambda^k\frac{e^{n\lambda}}{k!}\leq \alpha## and ##1-\sum_{k=1}^{c+1} n\lambda^k\frac{e^{n\lambda}}{k!}\geq \alpha##.

Can an equation like this be solved for c?

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


An inversion of the inequality didn't work because it vanishes ##\alpha##, I don't think there is an explicit form for the solution, but I've failed in finding an argument to explain why.
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Physics news on Phys.org
Assuming all parameters are positive, both sums increase with increasing c, so the inequalities will be valid from c=0 (or c=1) up to some maximal c. If you are just interested in finding any solution, test the smallest c allowed.

Apart from constant prefactors, your sum is ##\displaystyle \sum_{k=1}^{c} \frac{\lambda^k}{k}##, I'm not aware of closed forms for that (although some special values of ##\lambda## might have them). Is it really ##k## in the denominator, not ##k!## ?
 
mfb said:
Assuming all parameters are positive, both sums increase with increasing c, so the inequalities will be valid from c=0 (or c=1) up to some maximal c. If you are just interested in finding any solution, test the smallest c allowed.

Apart from constant prefactors, your sum is ##\displaystyle \sum_{k=1}^{c} \frac{\lambda^k}{k}##, I'm not aware of closed forms for that (although some special values of ##\lambda## might have them). Is it really ##k## in the denominator, not ##k!## ?
It is k!. I mistyped that.

There was another error, it is
##1-\sum_{k=1}^{c} n^k\lambda^k\frac{e^{n\lambda}}{k!}\geq \alpha##, NOT ##1-\sum_{k=1}^{c+1} n\lambda^k\frac{e^{n\lambda}}{k!}\geq \alpha##.

and

##\sum_{k=1}^{c} n^k\lambda^k\frac{e^{n\lambda}}{k!}\leq \alpha## instead of ##\sum_{k=1}^{c} n\lambda^k\frac{e^{n\lambda}}{k!}\leq \alpha##
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Okay, so we have the standard Poisson distribution with ##n\lambda## expectation value. I'm not aware of closed formulas for the cumulative distribution function.

As the two sums are now the same, the problem got easier: Check which inequality you have to consider for ##\alpha## smaller or larger than 1/2,
 
mfb said:
Okay, so we have the standard Poisson distribution with ##n\lambda## expectation value. I'm not aware of closed formulas for the cumulative distribution function.

As the two sums are now the same, the problem got easier: Check which inequality you have to consider for ##\alpha## smaller or larger than 1/2,

I don't understand the last part. I don't have the values ##n,\lambda,c## which I think I need to calculate the sum, and I need to calculate the sum in order too know which inequality should I use if ##\alpha## smaller or larger than 1/2.
 
Without all the constants in the sum, it is just ##\sum_{k=1}^c \frac{\lambda^k}{k!} \leq \ldots ## which is just the exponential function ##- 1##. There are probably more approximations ##r## for ##e^x = \sum_{k=0}^N \frac{x^k}{k!} + r(x;N) \text{ with } r(x;N) \leq \ldots ## than of any other function.
 
GabrielN00 said:
It is k!. I mistyped that.

There was another error, it is
##1-\sum_{k=1}^{c} n^k\lambda^k\frac{e^{n\lambda}}{k!}\geq \alpha##, NOT ##1-\sum_{k=1}^{c+1} n\lambda^k\frac{e^{n\lambda}}{k!}\geq \alpha##.

and

##\sum_{k=1}^{c} n^k\lambda^k\frac{e^{n\lambda}}{k!}\leq \alpha## instead of ##\sum_{k=1}^{c} n\lambda^k\frac{e^{n\lambda}}{k!}\leq \alpha##

Do you really mean to have ##e^{n \lambda}## rather than ##e^{- n \lambda}##? I ask, because if ##p_k(\mu) = \mu^k e^{-\mu}/k!## is the Poisson probability mass function for mean ##\mu## your sum has the form ##e^{2 n \lambda} \sum_{k=1}^c p_k(n \lambda)##. If you had ##e^{-n \lambda}## instead, your sum would be ##\sum_{k=1}^c p_k(n \lambda)##, which is almost the cumulative distribution function; it merely lacks the ##k=0## term.
 
  • Like
Likes GabrielN00 and fresh_42
Ray Vickson said:
Do you really mean to have ##e^{n \lambda}## rather than ##e^{- n \lambda}##? I ask, because if ##p_k(\mu) = \mu^k e^{-\mu}/k!## is the Poisson probability mass function for mean ##\mu## your sum has the form ##e^{2 n \lambda} \sum_{k=1}^c p_k(n \lambda)##. If you had ##e^{-n \lambda}## instead, your sum would be ##\sum_{k=1}^c p_k(n \lambda)##, which is almost the cumulative distribution function; it merely lacks the ##k=0## term.

You're right. It is ##e^{-n\lambda}##.

It's supposed to be the cumulative function. This is part of a larger problem, I didn't post the whole thing because I had some parts worked out. I don't think I can edit the initial post anymore, but I will post the original problem to give some context (which I probably should have done before).

The idea of the problem consists in having ##X_1,\dots, X_n## simple random sample of ##X\sim \operatorname{Poisson}(\lambda)## and the goal is the optimal critical region ##\alpha## for ##H_0:\lambda =\lambda_0## against ##H_1:\lambda=\lambda_1##.

I applied Neyman-Pearson theorem and followed ## \frac{\lambda_0}{\lambda_1} = \frac{(\lambda_0^{\sum x_i} e^{-\lambda_0}) / (\prod_{i=1}^n x_i!)}{(\lambda_1^{\sum x_i}e^{-\lambda_1})/(\prod_{i=1}^n x_i!)} = \frac{\lambda_0^{\sum x_i}e^{\lambda_1}}{\lambda_1^{\sum x_i}e^{\lambda_0}}\leq k##

Taking logarithms

## \ln \left( \lambda_0^{\sum x_i}e^{\lambda_1} \right)-\ln \left( \lambda_1^{\sum x_i}e^{\lambda_0} \right)\leq \ln(k)\\
\ln \left( \lambda_0^{\sum x_i}\right)+\ln\left(e^{\lambda_1} \right)-\ln \left( \lambda_1^{\sum x_i}\right)-\left(e^{\lambda_0} \right)\leq \ln(k)\\
\left(\sum x_i\right)\ln (\lambda_0)+\lambda_1 -\left( \sum x_i \right)\ln \left( \lambda_1\right)-\lambda_0\leq \ln(k)\\
\left(\sum x_i\right)\left(\ln (\lambda_0) -\ln \left( \lambda_1\right)\right)\leq \ln(k)+(\lambda_0-\lambda_1)\\
\sum x_i\leq \frac{\ln(k)+(\lambda_0-\lambda_1)}{\ln (\lambda_0) -\ln \left( \lambda_1\right)}
##

Because of that I have to find ##c## such that
##P\left( \sum_{i=1}^n X_i \leq c |, \lambda = \lambda_0 \right) \leq \alpha##

and

##P\left( \sum_{i=1}^{c+1} X_i \le c \,\middle|\, \lambda = \lambda_0 \right) \geq \alpha##Which reduced to the pair of equations you see above.
 
Last edited by a moderator:
GabrielN00 said:
You are right, it is ##e^{-n\lambda}##
In that case, you can express the sum in terms of known functions:
$$\sum_{k=0}^c \frac{(n \lambda)^k e^{-n \lambda}}{k!} = \frac{\Gamma(c+1,n \lambda)}{\Gamma(c+1)}, $$
where ##\Gamma(p,q)## is the incomplete Gamma function:
$$\Gamma(p,q) = \int_q^{\infty} t^{p-1} e^{-t} \, dt .$$
Whether this is of any use at all is another issue.
 
Last edited:
  • #10
GabrielN00 said:
You're right. It is ##e^{-n\lambda}##.

It's supposed to be the cumulative function. This is part of a larger problem, I didn't post the whole thing because I had some parts worked out. I don't think I can edit the initial post anymore, but I will post the original problem to give some context (which I probably should have done before).

The idea of the problem consists in having ##X_1,\dots, X_n## simple random sample of ##X\sim \operatorname{Poisson}(\lambda)## and the goal is the optimal critical region ##\alpha## for ##H_0:\lambda =\lambda_0## against ##H_1:\lambda=\lambda_1##.

I applied Neyman-Pearson theorem and followed ## \frac{\lambda_0}{\lambda_1} = \frac{(\lambda_0^{\sum x_i} e^{-\lambda_0}) / (\prod_{i=1}^n x_i!)}{(\lambda_1^{\sum x_i}e^{-\lambda_1})/(\prod_{i=1}^n x_i!)} = \frac{\lambda_0^{\sum x_i}e^{\lambda_1}}{\lambda_1^{\sum x_i}e^{\lambda_0}}\leq k##

Taking logarithms

## \ln \left( \lambda_0^{\sum x_i}e^{\lambda_1} \right)-\ln \left( \lambda_1^{\sum x_i}e^{\lambda_0} \right)\leq \ln(k)\\
\ln \left( \lambda_0^{\sum x_i}\right)+\ln\left(e^{\lambda_1} \right)-\ln \left( \lambda_1^{\sum x_i}\right)-\left(e^{\lambda_0} \right)\leq \ln(k)\\
\left(\sum x_i\right)\ln (\lambda_0)+\lambda_1 -\left( \sum x_i \right)\ln \left( \lambda_1\right)-\lambda_0\leq \ln(k)\\
\left(\sum x_i\right)\left(\ln (\lambda_0) -\ln \left( \lambda_1\right)\right)\leq \ln(k)+(\lambda_0-\lambda_1)\\
\sum x_i\leq \frac{\ln(k)+(\lambda_0-\lambda_1)}{\ln (\lambda_0) -\ln \left( \lambda_1\right)}
##

Because of that I have to find ##c## such that
##P\left( \sum_{i=1}^n X_i \leq c |, \lambda = \lambda_0 \right) \leq \alpha##

and

##P\left( \sum_{i=1}^{c+1} X_i \le c \,\middle|\, \lambda = \lambda_0 \right) \geq \alpha##Which reduced to the pair of equations you see above.
I really don't "get" these two equations. Suppose, eg., that ##\lambda_0 < \lambda_1##. Say we accept the null hypothesis if ##\sum X_i \leq c## and reject it if ##\sum X_i > c##. (Since the random variables are discrete we need to distinguish ## < c## from ##\leq c##, and I have more-or-less arbitrarily chosen the ##\leq c## version for the acceptance region.) Thus, we accept ##H_0## if ##\sum_{I=1}^n X_i \leq c## and reject it otherwise. So, the probability of a type-I error is ##P(I) = P(\sum_{I=1}^n X_i > c| \lambda = \lambda_0)##, and we want this to be ##\leq \alpha.## For a given ##n## that tells you the acceptable values of ##c##.

The probability of a type-II error is ##P(II) = P(\sum_{I=1}^n X_i \leq c | \lambda = \lambda_1)##, and (presumably) we want this to be ##\leq \beta## for some specified value ##\beta.## Your presentation does mention any ##\beta##, but of course you could take ##\beta = \alpha.## However, if you are doing that you need to mention it!

The two conditions taken together give two inequalities involving ##(n , c)##, which we can probably solve (numerically) using a computer algebra package such as Maple or Mathematica.
 
Last edited:
  • #11
GabrielN00 said:
You're right. It is ##e^{-n\lambda}##.
I will post the original problem to give some context (which I probably should have done before).

You definitely should have.

GabrielN00 said:
You're right. It is ##e^{-n\lambda}##.
The idea of the problem consists in having ##X_1,\dots, X_n## simple random sample of ##X\sim \operatorname{Poisson}(\lambda)## and the goal is the optimal critical region ##\alpha## for ##H_0:\lambda =\lambda_0## against ##H_1:\lambda=\lambda_1##.

Suppose for a minute that ##X## is instead a normal random variable with variance of 1. Can you solve this? How would you do it?

- - - - - - - -
I am getting concerned that you are getting into the weeds of classical stats with a firm grounding in probability. Classical stats is already notorious for being presented in a cookbook of recipes fashion, with ties to probability, making it confusing for people. If the ties aren't strong, it gets worse.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
1K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
3K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
1K
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
3K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
3K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K