MHB Solve Integral of ln(sin x) from 0 to pi.

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The integral of ln(sin x) from 0 to π evaluates to -π ln(2). Multiple members contributed correct solutions, including MarkFL, Olok, lfdahl, and chisigma. The solutions involved various integration techniques and properties of logarithms. The discussion highlights the importance of recognizing symmetry in the integral. Overall, the evaluation showcases the interplay between calculus and logarithmic functions.
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Evaluate the integral $$\int_{0}^{\pi} \ln (\sin x)\,dx$$.


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Congratulations to the following members for their correct solutions::)

1. MarkFL
2. Olok
3. lfdahl
3. chisigma

Solution from MarkFL:
We are given to evaluate:

$$I=\int_{0}^{\pi} \ln\left(\sin(x)\right)\,dx$$

By symmetry, we see that we may write:

$$I=2\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \ln\left(\sin(x)\right)\,dx$$

$$I=2\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \ln\left(\cos(x)\right)\,dx$$

Adding these two, and applying a double-angle identity for sine, and the properties of logs, we obtain:

$$I=\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \ln\left(\sin(2x)\right)-\ln(2)\,dx$$

using the substitution:

$$u=2x\,\therefore\,du=2\,dx$$

we then have:

$$I=\frac{1}{2}\int_{0}^{\pi} \ln\left(\sin(u)\right)-\ln(2)\,du$$

Integrating term by term, we find:

$$I=\frac{1}{2}I-\frac{\pi}{2}\ln(2)$$

Solving for $I$, we get:

$$I=-\pi\ln(2)$$

And so, we may conclude:

$$\int_{0}^{\pi} \ln\left(\sin(x)\right)\,dx=-\pi\ln(2)$$

Solution from lfdahl:
\[ \int_0^\pi \ln(\sin(x))dx = \int_0^\pi \ln(2\cos( \frac{x}{2} )\sin( \frac{x}{2} ))dx
\\\\
=\int_0^\pi \ln(2)dx+\int_0^\pi \ln(\cos( \frac{x}{2} ))dx+\int_0^\pi \ln(\sin( \frac{x}{2} )dx
\\\\=\pi \ln(2)+\int_{\frac{\pi}{2}}^{0}\ln(\cos(\frac{\pi -2u}{2})) d(\pi -2u)+\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\ln(\sin(\frac{2v}{2})d(2v)
\\\\
=\pi \ln(2)+2\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\ln(\sin(u))du+2\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\ln(\sin(v))dv
\\\\
=\pi \ln(2)+\int_{0}^{\pi}\ln(\sin(u))du + \int_{0}^{\pi}\ln(\sin(v))dv
\\\\
=\pi \ln(2)+2\int_{0}^{\pi}\ln(\sin(x))dx\]

Hence

\[ \int_{0}^{\pi}\ln(\sin(x))dx=-\pi \ln(2)\]
 
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