evinda
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MHB
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I like Serena said:Indeed.
Why should $c_2=0$? (Wondering)
Don't we have that $u(r, \theta)=\left( c_1 r+\frac{c_2}{r}\right) \cos{\theta}$ ?
And this $u(r, \theta)$ is only defined for $r=0$ if $c_2=0$... Or am I wrong? (Thinking)