- #1

Master J

- 226

- 0

Letting Phi = X(x).Y(y).Z(z), and solving as a PDE...

The equation looks pretty much the same except there is a separate Hamiltonian for each of the Cartesian coordinates x y z. However, the 1/X(x) term etc. really confuses me, I don't know where it comes from. Could someone perhaps explain??

ie. H_x = [-(h^2)/2m].[1/X(x)].[(d^2)X(x)/d(X(x))^2] + V(x)

^^^^

where h is representing h-bar, and d the partial derivative.

Cheers guys!