Solving a Free Particle in 1D: Is \psi(X) an Energy Eigenstate?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around determining whether a given wavefunction \(\psi(X)\) is an energy eigenstate for a free particle in one dimension, specifically in the context of quantum mechanics and the Schrödinger equation.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the implications of a free particle with a potential \(V(x) = 0\) and discuss the relevance of the time-independent Schrödinger equation. Some mention the need to define parameters like \(k\) to facilitate solving the equation. Others raise questions about the nature of the wavefunction and its relation to spectral problems.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants offering insights into the formulation of the Schrödinger equation and referencing educational resources. There is a mix of foundational exploration and specific mathematical considerations, but no consensus has been reached regarding the original poster's wavefunction.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of understanding the spectral problem in quantum mechanics and the potential complexity of determining whether the wavefunction can be expressed in terms of known solutions. There is an acknowledgment of the original poster's uncertainty in approaching the problem.

Epud
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Trying to get my head around this problem and would very much appreciate any suggestions.

Given a wavefunction \psi(X) i am asked if it is an energy eigenstate for a free particle moving in one dimension? Any suggestion on how I start a problem like this?

thanks,

Epud
 
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Epud said:
Trying to get my head around this problem and would very much appreciate any suggestions.

Given a wavefunction \psi(X) i am asked if it is an energy eigenstate for a free particle moving in one dimension? Any suggestion on how I start a problem like this?

thanks,

Epud
Well, this is rather easy if you just know how to solve the Schrödinger equation in the case of a free particle (ie potential V(x) = 0)

regards
marlon
 
As was pointed out, a free particle means V(x) = 0.
Furthermore, you'll be solving the one dimensional, time-independent S.E, since you're given psi(x).

Most undergrad texts work this out at one point or another. I especially like Griffith's explanations - and it should help you a lot (it's done in position space, in 1D).

In case you don't have it, to get you started:
Write the SE:
-\frac{\hbar ^2}{2m}\frac{d^2 \psi}{dx^2} = E\psi
Rearrange, then define
k \equiv \frac{\sqrt{2mE}}{\hbar}

Being able to just "see" that you should define k as such, to make it easier (or possible?) to solve isn't something I was able to do. It would have taken me ages to find that on my own.

hth.
 
Epud said:
Trying to get my head around this problem and would very much appreciate any suggestions.

Given a wavefunction \psi(X) i am asked if it is an energy eigenstate for a free particle moving in one dimension? Any suggestion on how I start a problem like this?

thanks,

Epud

The spectral problem

\hat{H}|\psi\rangle =E|\psi\rangle

in case of a free particle has a solution of the form

\psi (x)=\langle x|\psi\rangle

, where \langle x| is a tempered distribution and |\psi\rangle is a test function.

So you'll have to see whether your wavefunction can be obtained in this method: applying a linear functional on a vector from L^{2}\left(\mathbb{R}\right).


Daniel.
 

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