Solving Integral 2exp(2+jωt): Explaining Answer

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The integral \(\int^{\infty}_{0}2e^{2+jωt}dt\) evaluates to \(\frac{j2e^{2}}{\omega}\) under the condition that \(\omega < 0\). The confusion arises from the limits of integration and the behavior of the exponential function. By substituting \(u = 2 + jωt\) and applying contour integration, the limit converges to the stated result. The key to understanding this integral lies in recognizing that the imaginary part of \(\omega\) must be negative for convergence.

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hogrampage
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I do not understand the following integral:

\int^{\infty}_{0}2e^{2+jωt}dt = \frac{j2e^{2}}{\omega}

Why is it not ∞? Here are my steps:

Let u = 2+jωt, du = jωdt, dt = \frac{1}{jω}du = -\frac{j}{ω}du

\int^{\infty}_{0}2e^{2+jωt}dt

= -\frac{2j}{ω}\int^{\infty}_{2}2e^{u}du

= -\frac{2j}{ω}\stackrel{lim}{h\rightarrow∞}\int^{h}_{2}2e^{u}du

= -\frac{2j}{ω}\stackrel{lim}{h\rightarrow∞}(e^{h}-e^{2})

To me, this limit does not exist, so why is the answer \frac{j2e^{2}}{\omega}?
 
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You also need to change your integration limits, if ##t \to \infty## then ##u \to 2 + j \infty##.

First thing I would do is separate ##e^{2 + j \omega t} = e^2 e^{j \omega t}## and pull the e² in front of the integration sign. The remaining integral can be solved using for example contour integration.
 
hogrampage said:
I do not understand the following integral:

\int^{\infty}_{0}2e^{2+jωt}dt = \frac{j2e^{2}}{\omega}

Why is it not ∞? Here are my steps:

Let u = 2+jωt, du = jωdt, dt = \frac{1}{jω}du = -\frac{j}{ω}du

\int^{\infty}_{0}2e^{2+jωt}dt

= -\frac{2j}{ω}\int^{\infty}_{2}2e^{u}du

= -\frac{2j}{ω}\stackrel{lim}{h\rightarrow∞}\int^{h}_{2}2e^{u}du

= -\frac{2j}{ω}\stackrel{lim}{h\rightarrow∞}(e^{h}-e^{2})

To me, this limit does not exist, so why is the answer \frac{j2e^{2}}{\omega}?

That's cus you don't know what \omega is. Let's just look at:
\int_0^{\infty} e^{iwt}dt=\frac{1}{iw}e^{iwt}\biggr|_0^{\infty}

Let \omega=a+bi then we have
\frac{1}{i(a+bi)}e^{i(a+bi)t}\biggr|_0^{\infty}

Now, for what values of a and b will that expression converge?
 
Last edited:
jackmell said:
That's cus you don't know what \omega is. Let's just look at:
\int_0^{\infty} e^{iwt}dt=\frac{1}{iw}e^{iwt}\biggr|_0^{\infty}

Let \omega=a+bi then we have
\frac{1}{i(a+bi)}e^{i(a+bi)t}\biggr|_0^{\infty}

Now, for what values of a and b will that expression converge?

a, b < 0 which means ω < 0. So:

\frac{1}{iw}e^{iwt}\biggr|_0^{\infty} = -\frac{1}{iω} for ω < 0.

From that, the complete answer to the original integral is:

-\frac{2e^{2}}{jω} = \frac{j2e^{2}}{ω} for ω < 0.

Thanks for the help! If I made any mistakes above, let me know.
 
Last edited:
hogrampage said:
a, b < 0 which means ω < 0. So:

\frac{1}{iw}e^{iwt}\biggr|_0^{\infty} = -\frac{1}{iω} for ω < 0.

From that, the complete answer to the original integral is:

-\frac{2e^{2}}{jω} = \frac{j2e^{2}}{ω} for ω < 0.

Thanks for the help! If I made any mistakes above, let me know.

Your analysis of a and b is not correct. for w=a+bi, in order for the integral to converge, b has to be less than zero. a can be any real number. Go through that to make sure you understand it.
 

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