Solving Orthonormal Eigenfunctions with Kronecker Delta

[ghosts_cloak]

Hello :-)
I am just finishing my QM homework and I have just showed that the wavefunction for a particle in an infinite 1D potential well form an orthonormal set of eigenfunctions. It asks me to express my results in terms of the Kronecker delta:

Delta[nm]={1 for n=m and 0 for n!=m}

Im a bit confused as to what this means... I have shown they are normalised and orthogonal, hence they are orthonormal? I don't see what the last part is asking me to do?

Any help is much appreciated!

~Gareth

 

[Meir Achuz]

It's too trivial. Just write <n|m>= \delta_{nm} instead of saying it in words.

 

[ghosts_cloak]

Hi, lol!
The question is sooo long I just lost sight of what I was doing. Yep it is trivial, I see now (actually, before I read your post, but thanks a lot anyway)

Cheers,
Gareth