- #1
Longmarch
- 7
- 0
Can anyone help with the 2 questions below:
1) Suppose f is a mathematical quantity that can take on the "states", or "values", f1, f2,...fi,...fn., where n can be finite or infinite.
So, F is the Set { f1, f2,... fi,.. fn } or
F = { f1, f2, fi,... fn }
= { all possible f's}
Now, suppose A is a operator such that when it operates on fi, it gives fj, where i is not equal to j, i.e.
Afi = fj, i =/= j
Afj = fk, j =/= k, and so on
Then can one say anything about A operating on f ?
Af = ?
Note that A is therefore a Mapping that maps F into itself. It maps one element, fi, into a different element fj .
Would it be correct to say that
Af = Mf, where M is some form of modifying factor, that is NOT a function of f ?
2) If Af = Mf is indeed true, then is it necessarily true that A has an Inverse, B, such that
BAf = f ?
If not, then under what conditions will A have such an Inverse?
1) Suppose f is a mathematical quantity that can take on the "states", or "values", f1, f2,...fi,...fn., where n can be finite or infinite.
So, F is the Set { f1, f2,... fi,.. fn } or
F = { f1, f2, fi,... fn }
= { all possible f's}
Now, suppose A is a operator such that when it operates on fi, it gives fj, where i is not equal to j, i.e.
Afi = fj, i =/= j
Afj = fk, j =/= k, and so on
Then can one say anything about A operating on f ?
Af = ?
Note that A is therefore a Mapping that maps F into itself. It maps one element, fi, into a different element fj .
Would it be correct to say that
Af = Mf, where M is some form of modifying factor, that is NOT a function of f ?
2) If Af = Mf is indeed true, then is it necessarily true that A has an Inverse, B, such that
BAf = f ?
If not, then under what conditions will A have such an Inverse?