Solving the Schrodinger Eqn for 1-D Atom

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around solving the Schrödinger equation for a one-dimensional atom, specifically by substituting a proposed wave function into the equation to find conditions for the parameter b in relation to the Bohr radius.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the substitution of a specific wave function into the Schrödinger equation and the implications of boundary conditions for the wave function. Questions arise regarding the validity of setting x to zero and the necessity of certain conditions for the wave function.

Discussion Status

Participants are exploring various aspects of the problem, including the derivation of parameters and the conditions required for the wave function. Some guidance has been offered regarding the relationship between b and the Bohr radius, as well as the energy associated with the ground state.

Contextual Notes

There are discussions about the normalization of the wave function and the physical interpretation of the conditions at x = 0 and as x approaches infinity. The implications of these conditions in the context of atomic structure are also under consideration.

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Homework Statement



By substituting the wave function [itex]\psi (x) = Ax{e^{ - bx}}[/itex] into the Schoedinger equation for a 1-D atom, show that a solution can be obtained for [itex]b = 1/{a_0}[/itex], where [itex]{a_0}[/itex] is the Bohr radius.

Homework Equations



[itex]- \frac{{{\hbar ^2}}}{{2m}}\frac{{{d^2}\psi (x)}}{{d{x^2}}} - \frac{{{e^2}}}{{4\pi {\varepsilon _0}x}}\psi (x) = E\psi (x)[/itex].

[itex]{a_0} = \frac{{4\pi {\varepsilon _0}{\hbar ^2}}}{{m{e^2}}}[/itex]

The Attempt at a Solution



I get to the point where [itex]2b - x{b^2} = \frac{{2m}}{{{\hbar ^2}}}Ex + \frac{m}{{{\hbar ^2}}}\frac{{{e^2}}}{{2\pi {\varepsilon _0}}}[/itex]. If I let x = 0 I get the desired result. Can I do that?

Apparently the wave function solving the equation must satisfy two conditions:

[itex]\psi (x) \to 0[/itex] as [itex]x \to \infty[/itex]
[itex]\psi (0) = 0[/itex]

But why is that? Can anyone explain?
 
Last edited:
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glebovg said:
[itex]\psi (x) \to 0[/itex] as [itex]x \to \infty[/itex]
[itex]\psi (0) = 0[/itex]

But why is that? Can anyone explain?

The first condition is necessary because the wavefunction must be normalisable. Meaning it must have a finite integral over all space. If it tended to anything other than 0, then this would not be the case.

The second condition is necessary because you are talking about an atom. Atoms have a positive nucleus. There is no probability of finding an electron at exactly the centre of the nucleus.
 
Can you help? How do I show that [itex]b = 1/{a_0}[/itex]?

What should E be?

Also, how to derive the expression for the ground state energy?
 
You need to recognise that in the ground state [itex]x = a_0 = 1/b[/itex] and therefore [itex]E = -\frac{b^2 \hbar^2}{2m}[/itex]. Thus you can cancel the terms for [itex]x[/itex] from the equation and calculate the bohr radius by plugging in known values of the constants. This also leaves you with an equation for calculating the ground state energy.
 
So you just equate the coefficients and then solve for both b and E, right?
 
Last edited:
Yeah.
 
Thanks.
 

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