Solving WKB Eigenvalue Problem for Bound States

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the representation of the potential function for the WKB eigenvalue problem concerning bound states in a quantum well. The original answer sheet incorrectly defines the potential as V(x) = V_{0}x/a, while the correct representation is V(x) = V_{0}(x/a - 1), ensuring V(0) = -V_{0} and V(a) = 0. The discrepancy leads to different expressions for energy eigenvalues, confirming that the original formulation is flawed. The participant's potential function is valid and accurately reflects the problem's requirements.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of quantum mechanics, specifically the WKB approximation.
  • Familiarity with potential energy functions in quantum wells.
  • Knowledge of energy eigenvalues and bound states in quantum systems.
  • Basic proficiency in mathematical representations of physical concepts.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the WKB approximation in quantum mechanics for deeper insights.
  • Research potential energy functions in quantum wells and their implications.
  • Examine the derivation of energy eigenvalues in bound state problems.
  • Explore common errors in potential function representations in quantum mechanics.
USEFUL FOR

Students and professionals in quantum mechanics, physicists working on eigenvalue problems, and anyone involved in the study of quantum wells and bound states will benefit from this discussion.

T-7
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Hi,

This is just a quick question -- I'm puzzled by the way this answer sheet represents the potential function.

The question asks us to determine the energy eigenvalues of the bound states of a well where the potential drops abruptly from zero to a depth Vo at x=0, and then increases linearly with position x until at x=a the potential is again zero.

They write:

[tex]V(x) = \frac{V_{0}x}{a}[/tex]
[tex]E = V(b) = \frac{V_{0}b}{a}[/tex]

where b is some point between x=0 and x=a.

But surely the correct representation of the potential function is

[tex]V(x) = V_{0}\left(\frac{x}{a}-1\right)[/tex]

so that V(0) = -Vo, and V(a) = 0. But, using my potential function, I end up with a somewhat different expression for the energy eigenvalues, in the end, than they do. Why do they do it that way? And what's wrong with my pot. function??

Cheers!
 
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There's nothing wrong with your function; if your description of the problem is a faithful reproduction (which is why we prefer if the original question is reproduced verbatim, rather than paraphrased) then "they" got it wrong.
 
Gokul43201 said:
There's nothing wrong with your function; if your description of the problem is a faithful reproduction (which is why we prefer if the original question is reproduced verbatim, rather than paraphrased) then "they" got it wrong.

Ok. Thanks for confirming that.
 

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