So I want to get this whole spin/angular magnetism Bohr magneton quantum thing straight. Suppose a diamagnetic sphere lies at the origin. Lets talk in the x-y space for simplicity. Lets bring a bar magnet in along the x-axis approaching zero from the right.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

If the north pole of a bar magnet is brought near the circle, the circle will be attracted to the bar magnet due to the induced magnetic dipole moment in the material, which wants to move away from a region of increasing magnetic field. These forces are relatively weak and would require a very strong external field to have any noticeable physical effect. This would also depend on the temperature of the material considering Curie's approximation ##C = M \frac{B_{ext}}{T}##. If the temperature is too high, the magnetic domains inside the material would become agitated, and the dipoles in each respective domain won't line up to produce a strong net dipole.

If the south pole is brought near the circle instead, it should be expected that the circle be repelled due to the induced dipole.

If the material is now paramagnetic, it should be repelled by the N-Pole and attracted by the S-Pole. This is due to how the induced dipole lines up with the external field. The material needs to be kept quite cool and a decently strong external field must be applied to notice anything.

If the material is now ferromagnetic, a similar result to that of a paramagnetic material can be observed. A relatively weak external field can be applied due to the magnetic nature of the material. That is, the material already exerts its own magnetic field intrinsically and any external field would show obvious results.

Does this make sense?

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# Spin/angular magnetism Bohr magneton quantum thing

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