subtillioN
Originally posted by neutroncount
We ask for proof.
What proof did you ask for?
Originally posted by neutroncount
We ask for proof.
Originally posted by neutroncount
Give us the math behind it. Give us answers for what Tyger asked of you.
Originally posted by subtillioN
Sorce Theory uses the same mathematics as the standard model,
and explains qualitatively what is physically happening to achieve the numerical results.
As a qualitative description of the Unification of the forces
(and much else) it is extremely valuable as a guide for the simulation and quantitative fine-tuning of the unified field equations.
The frontier of Sorce Theory is the explanation of how the basic constants and the physical details of the actual experiments lead to the family of resonances known as particles. This may require intense simulational work but the potential is great indeed."
Originally posted by ahrkron
This is an extremely[/color] strong statement. The math of the standard model directly implies many of the issues that "Sorce theory" supposedly doesn't need.
If this theory is in fact described by the same exact math, hardly any room is left for interpretational differences, and pretty much all of them are already covered by mainstream physics.
You are getting youself into a lot of trouble here.
For instance, the "collapse of the wavefunction" is not just a philosophical position to be discussed by "cocktail party philosophers", as Feynman called them. It directly corresponds to a specific piece of math in QM:
When performing a measurement, the state of a quantum system starts as a sum of vector components:
state = c1*v1 + c2*v2 + ...
(c1, c2, ... are complex numbers; v1, v2, ... are elements of the vector space)
and, once the measurement is performed, the state is reduced to just one of them:
state = v7
i.e., all other possible states (some of which may correspond to distant places) have been wiped out.
How can this piece of math (that, according to you, is also used in sorce theory) be explained in terms of local interactions?
The same applies to wave-particle duality
uncertainty
Bell's theorem, etc.
"Qualitative descriptions" were useful probably two centuries ago. We now can supplement them with precise quantitative models, the interpretation of which needs to pay much more attention to the full structure (i.e., math) of the models.
Originally posted by subtillioN
The math works but it is based on incorrect fundamental assumptions.
Sorce Theory does offer corrections and alterations to the basics of physics, but it only achieves further[/color] qualitative, semantic and quantitative accuracy.[/color]
It does not abandon the mathematics nor necessarily supplant them just yet.
Again this is a mathematical procedure to describe and simplify a very complex fluid-dynamic process.
Much of the mechanisms have been worked out,
In Sorce Theory the entire reasoning and the experiments that led to the quantum hypothesis of Planck and its subsequent re-enforcment by Einstein and others are explained by the complex fluid-dynamic processes in a frictionless continuous medium.
Originally posted by ahrkron
Easy to say. Name two.
In order to "achieve further quatitative accuracy", it needs to yield different predictions. This can only happen if there is at least one equation which is different. Which is it, and why?
Make up your mind. Does "sorce th." use the same math as the SM, or not?
Some questions here:
1. What is the fluid you are talking about?
2. What is it made of?
3. If it is "fundamental", it seems as a more complicated object than particles. Why can it be regarded as a preferable substrate?
4. What equations govern such fluid? Navier-Stokes'?
And a request: Show us the details of how such "complex fluid-dynamic process", as you call it, produces the apparent (in your view) wavefunction collapse.
Show us the simplest one, so that we can see that it produces the same experimental predictions as QM.
Honestly, it is my impression that all you have is this kind of descriptions, with lots of "complex fluid-dynamic processes" mentioned here and there, but no working model.
I'd certainly welcome your proving me wrong by showing here even a (mathematically sound) sketch of a proof, showing how the fluid dynamic description naturally produces the QM "appearances".
Originally posted by subtillioN
First and foremost is the assumption of the point-particle in the void... Quantum Uncertainty and the assumption of wave-particle duality both of which are incorrect.
In 1965, Sorce Theory calculated that there should be slight deviations in the change of rate of the gravitational field of the Earth.
This finding is mostly forgotten and there is still no explanation of how those measurements could be yeilded by the known force of gravity.
It uses the same math but it is a tool for fine-tuning or supplanting the math by knowing the physical mechanisms involved.
Because it Unifies the forces directly as a consequence of its basic assumptions.
In its amorphous state it is quantitatively equivalent to a zero-energy superfluid,
but the equations at this level need to be worked out through simulation to fine-tune the constants.
The collapse is purely a problem of description. It does not happen in reality.
If you are interested I can send you the book, but it is far too detailed and complex with essential diagrams to go into here.
Originally posted by ahrkron
In what sense do you say they are "incorrect"?
Great!, so sorce theory has different equations. Please post one here, together with the one it replaces from mainstream physics.
Oh, well... so, are they the same or not? You keep contradicting youself. I'm pretty sure I'm not the only one loosing interest on this.
What are (explicitly) its "basic assumptions"?
Just post the equations here, that will settle it (even if you don't).
In any case, you should agree that it describes things perfectly.
What I asked from you is a description of how sorce theory's processes "look like" a collapse.
Ok, send it. I'm interested in looking at the math details. I'll PM you my email address.
Originally posted by elas
The Squashed Star can be explained in the same manner as Brauthewaite's gyroscope demonstrations and the Japanese falling cylinder demonstrations . They are all physical proofs that we live in a Corpuscular universe as first proposed by Newton.
They demonstrate the effect of spin on corpuscular gravity, as does every spiral galaxy and planetary system.
Because it has proved impossible so far to wrap these observation together in one neat mathematical theory the concept of
corpuscular particle fields remains in the background getting only occassional casual reference as a possibility; but of all the ideas on the structure of the universe it is the simplest to grasp and needs only a new theory of gravity to bring it to the forefront.
(see Scientific American special issue on 'The edge of physics').
Originally posted by neutroncount
Great. Two crackpot theories collide. This should be good.
Originally posted by elas
The current standard theories are not religions but 'predictive theories; In the case of gravity the theory has been proven wrong by at least two confirmed observations.
It is accepted that at present there is no satisfactory explanation of long range gravity; It is also accepted that current theory does not tell us anything about 'cause'.