Static + Hypersurface Orthogonality

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SUMMARY

Static spacetimes are defined by the absence of the g_{tx} component in the metric, indicating that the Killing vector field ∂/∂t is orthogonal to spacelike hypersurfaces. This relationship is consistent with the definition of orthogonality in the context of 4-orthonality, where the dot product of vectors equals zero. The discussion clarifies that while g_{tx}=0 suggests orthogonality, it does not imply a lack of distance between timelike and spacelike vectors. The correct definition emphasizes the hypersurface orthogonality, which is coordinate invariant and can be demonstrated using the framework established in Wald's chapters 6 and 7.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of general relativity concepts, particularly static spacetimes.
  • Familiarity with metric tensors and their components, specifically g_{tx} and g_{ab}.
  • Knowledge of Killing vector fields and their significance in spacetime geometry.
  • Basic grasp of orthogonality in the context of differential geometry and 4-orthonality.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of Killing vector fields in general relativity.
  • Learn about the implications of hypersurface orthogonality in static spacetimes.
  • Explore the derivations presented in Wald's "General Relativity," focusing on chapters 6 and 7.
  • Investigate the differences between static and stationary spacetimes in detail.
USEFUL FOR

This discussion is beneficial for theoretical physicists, graduate students in general relativity, and researchers focusing on the geometric properties of spacetime. It provides insights into the mathematical foundations of static spacetimes and their implications in cosmology and gravitational theories.

latentcorpse
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Static spacetimes can be defined as having no g_{tx} component of the metric.

Alternatively we can say that they are foliated by a bunch of spacelike hypersurfaces to which the Killing vector field \frac{\partial}{\partial t} is orthogonal.

How are these two statements consistent?

g_{tx}=0 \Rightarrow g(\frac{\partial}{\partial t}, \frac{\partial}{\partial x})=0 but I always thought this meant there was no distance between timelike and spacelike vectors rather than a statement about them being orthogonal?

Can someone please clear this up for me.

Thanks.
 
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latentcorpse said:
Static spacetimes can be defined as having no g_{tx} component of the metric.

Alternatively we can say that they are foliated by a bunch of spacelike hypersurfaces to which the Killing vector field \frac{\partial}{\partial t} is orthogonal.

How are these two statements consistent?

g_{tx}=0 \Rightarrow g(\frac{\partial}{\partial t}, \frac{\partial}{\partial x})=0 but I always thought this meant there was no distance between timelike and spacelike vectors rather than a statement about them being orthogonal?

Can someone please clear this up for me.

Thanks.

√g(v1,v2) is the definition of dot product. Dot product=0 is the definition of orthogonality, in this case, 4-orthonality.
 
PAllen said:
√g(v1,v2) is the definition of dot product. Dot product=0 is the definition of orthogonality, in this case, 4-orthonality.

Why do you have a square root? This would correspond to "ds" rather than ds^2 and I though ds was an infinitesimal line element i.e. a measure of distance?

If the metric is just a statement about orthogonality, how is it connected to length? Or is it only a statement about orthogonality when it vanishes? I seem to be getting myself very confused about this haha
 
latentcorpse said:
Static spacetimes can be defined as having no g_{tx} component of the metric.
No, for example the dear old Friedmann cosmology has gtx = 0 but is not static. And contrariwise you can take a static spacetime like Schwarzschild and write it in a coordinate system for which gtx ≠ 0
 
Last edited:
Bill_K said:
No, for example the dear old Friedmann cosmology has gtx = 0 but is not static. And contrariwise you can take a static spacetime like Schwarzschild and write it in a coordinate system for which gtx ≠ 0

So the correct defn is the hypersurface stuff because it is coordinate invariant.

Is it correct to say that if it's static then it's always possible to find a coordinate system with g_{tx}=0?
 
Static means stationary and hypersurface orthogonal. In geometric terms this means there exists a time-like Killing field ##\xi## for the space-time and this Killing field is hypersurface orthogonal i.e. (locally) there exists scalar fields ##f,g## such that ##\xi^{\flat} = g df##. It is very easy to show that this implies there exists a coordinate system ##\{x^{\mu}\}## on the space-time such that ##\partial_t g_{\mu\nu} = 0## and ##g_{ti} = 0##. You will find this shown in e.g. Wald, see chapters 6 and 7.
 
there might be a notational problem in the above, g(V,V)=g^{ab}V_aV_b
 
macrobbair said:
g(V,V)=g^{ab}V_aV_b

You have the indexes backwards, at least if you are referring to the implicit statement in the OP that ##g_{tx} = g \left( \partial / \partial t, \partial / \partial x \right)##. That translates to ##g \left( V, V \right) = g_{ab} V^a V^b##, with the metric indexes lower and the vector indexes upper. Also, the two vectors aren't the same, so you should really be writing ##g \left( V, W \right) = g_{ab} V^a W^b##.

Then, if ##V## and ##W## are coordinate basis vectors, as ##\partial / \partial t## and ##\partial / \partial x## are, then the components ##V^a## and ##W^b## are either 1 or 0, depending on which basis vector we are looking at. Thus, ##\partial / \partial t = (1, 0, 0, 0)## and ##\partial / \partial x = (0, 1, 0, 0)##, so the formula reduces to ##g \left( \partial / \partial t, \partial / \partial x \right) = g_{ab} \left( \partial / \partial t \right)^a \left( \partial / \partial x \right)^b = g_{tx}##, as the OP wrote.
 

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