Strange formulation of Gauss' Theorem

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    Gauss Strange Theorem
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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around a proposed alternative formulation of Gauss' Theorem, specifically examining the mathematical validity and usefulness of this new expression in relation to the traditional form of the theorem. The scope includes theoretical considerations and mathematical reasoning.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant presents an alternative formulation of Gauss' Theorem involving a Gaussian integral and questions its equivalence to the traditional expression.
  • Another participant expresses that the integral appears correct and suggests it leads to the expected result, but inquires about the source of this formulation.
  • A different participant questions the practical utility of this alternative formulation.
  • One participant remarks on the seeming lack of usefulness of the new formulation while noting its connection to both Gauss' Theorem and the Gaussian integral, indicating a personal interest in including it in a compendium on Gaussian integrals.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach a consensus on the usefulness of the alternative formulation, with some expressing skepticism about its practicality while others acknowledge its mathematical correctness.

Contextual Notes

The discussion does not resolve whether the proposed formulation is equivalent to the traditional Gauss' Theorem, nor does it clarify the implications of using this alternative expression.

Ssnow
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TL;DR
Is this a complicated expression for the ordinary Gauss theorem for the flux of the electric field ?
Hi to all!
The ordinary Gauss theorem states that ##\Phi\left(\vec{E}\right)\,=\, \frac{\sum_{i=1}^{n}q_{i}}{\varepsilon_{0}}## where ##\sum_{i=1}^{n}q_{i}## is the sum of all charges internal of a closed surface and ##\varepsilon_{0}## is the dielectric constant in the empty. Now I ask to the PF if this formula:

##\Phi\left(\vec{E}\right)\,=\, sign{\left(\sum_{i=1}^{n}q_{i}\right)}\cdot \left(\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}e^{-\frac{\pi\varepsilon_{0}}{\left|\sum_{i=1}^{n}q_{i}\right|}y^2}dy\right)^2##

is equivalent to the previous and if it is mathematically correct.
Thank you!
Ssnow
 
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It looks good to me; the integral is called a Gaussian integral and if you evaluate it, you get the right answer. I'm wondering where you saw it formulated like this?
 
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And for what should it be good for?
 
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In fact it seems not very useful to write le Gauss theorem in this form...
the funny thing is that this formulation relates two result associated to the name of Gauss, respectively the Gauss theorem and the Gaussian integral ... :biggrin:
I encountered this formulation because I am writing a compendium on the Gaussian integral and its generalizations, so I think to put also this nice example ...
Ssnow
 

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