Sum or upped bound of geometrico-harmonic series

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on determining the upper bound of the infinite series \(\sum_{k=p+1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{k} a^k\) for \(a \leq 1\). The established upper bound is \(\frac{1}{p+1} \cdot \frac{a^{p+1}}{1-a}\). The key insight is that since \(k\) is at least \(p+1\), the term \(\frac{1}{k}\) can be bounded above by \(\frac{1}{p+1}\), allowing for the factorization of \(\frac{1}{k}\) out of the summation.

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aamir.ahmed
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Hi,
I need help to determine the upper bound of this infinite series.
\sum_{k=p+1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{k} a^k \ \ \ \ ; a \leq 1

The paper I am reading reports the upper bound to be,
\sum_{k=p+1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{k} a^k \leq \frac{1}{p+1}\sum_{k=p+1}^{\infty} a^k = \frac{1}{p+1} \cdot \frac{a^{p+1}}{1-a}

I totally cannot understand how could he factor 1/k coefficient out of the summation and replace it with 1/(p+1). Please point me in the right direction.
 
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aamir.ahmed said:
I totally cannot understand how could he factor 1/k coefficient out of the summation and replace it with 1/(p+1). Please point me in the right direction.

k is at least p+1, so 1/k is at most 1/(p+1).
 

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