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[tex]\sum_{i=0}^{p-1} (\frac{i^2+a}{p})=-1[/tex] for any odd prime p and any integer a. (I am referring to the Legendre Symbol).

I was reading a paper where they claimed it was true for the a=1 case and referred to a source that I don't have immediate access to. So I was wondering if anyone knows if this is true or a source that talks about this? I know it doesn't mean it's necessarily true, but this proposition has been true with all the examples I've looked at with Mathematica. Thanks!

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# Sums of Legendre Symbols Question

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