This is a very technical question so I don't really expect someone to have the answer unless they have actually worked with or studied the RS models.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

They say that the value of the brane tensions in model 1 (which are related to the bulk cosmological constant) are such that the 4D cosmological constant (on our brane) is zero.

I can't see how this comes about.

I probably misunderstand but the way i see it, there are two contributions to the 4D cosmological constant: the brane tension itself plus the integral over the fifth dimension of the 5D cosmological constant. But when I do the integral, the two terms do not cancel out (there is a mismatch by a factor of 2). I could show my calculation but I will wait to see if anyone can help.

Thanks

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# Technical question: vanishing of the cosmological constant in Randall Sundrum 1

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