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gottfried
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The axiom of choice on a finite family of sets.
I just been doing some casual reading on the Axiom of CHoice and my understanding of the is that it assert the existence of a choice function when one is not constructable. So if we have a finite family of nonempty sets is it fair to say we can assume the existence of a choice function because it is always possible, in theory, to manually pick an element of each set?
I just been doing some casual reading on the Axiom of CHoice and my understanding of the is that it assert the existence of a choice function when one is not constructable. So if we have a finite family of nonempty sets is it fair to say we can assume the existence of a choice function because it is always possible, in theory, to manually pick an element of each set?
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