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If we have [itex]\frac{1}{X(x)}[/itex] [itex]\frac{d^2 X}{dx^2}[/itex]=-κ^2, the literature is saying that the solution must be: e^(±iκx), but am always getting e^(±k^2x).

Isn't the approach is to decently integrate twice and then raise the ln by the exponential? Where am I going wrong? Thanks

Isn't the approach is to decently integrate twice and then raise the ln by the exponential? Where am I going wrong? Thanks

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